William Orem wrote on May. 17, 2007 @ 19:33 GMT
I interviewed some non-mainstream cosmologists last year for an article, such as those at the
Alternative Cosmology Group who hosted the
Crisis in Cosmology conference in Portugal in 2005. These are credible folks who think the Standard Model (the Bang, not particle physics SM) is a bad mistake, the data have been misinterpreted, and that cosmology needs to be fundamentally revamped as a result. Different people had different alternative models to propose, but the general consensus among a good number was that the SCM is just wrong.
Here's the thing that struck me most in having those conversations, and what I want to open up as a thread: several folks I spoke with were completely at ease with a model that has no beginning in time.
There are variant versions. Some saw the universe is oscillatory, undergoing mini-crunches that erase previous conditions, so that if it even had an actual beginning it is no longer meaningful to speak of it. Others simply accepted temporal infinity extending into the past as quietly as most folks do when the arrow is pointed toward the future (or as many accept spatial infinity).
I must confess, I myself am completely comfortable with temporal infinity pointing toward the past. But in fairness, it has to be noted that this goes against centuries of insistent philosophical argument--not only that such a thing doesn't exist, but that it isn't even properly *conceivable.*
Armchair philosophers, I admit, don't carry as much weight in the modern day as they once did, pronouncing on what was or was not possible in that conveniently a priori way. But they at least show us something about how people think. How could we be "here, now" if an infinite number of "nows" would have to have occurred before this one? How can there be effects in the present of causal chains that extend forever? Isn't that an effect without an origin?
An infinite past just seems wrong -- literally inconceivable -- like words being put together in a meaningless way. But is it?
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Joe Fisher replied on Sep. 13, 2010 @ 21:28 GMT
Not only is the past not infinite, the past does not and cannot exist at all. The only condition that can exist is the here and now. Our individual grasp of reality is strictly rationed. We cannot know everything there is to know. Whether or not we can actually know anything for sure is debatable. Each of us obviously is constrained only to know what our senses transmit to us at any particular moment. Well if verifiable reality can only consist of the pragmatic instantaneous sensations perceived by our senses, any supposition, or speculation or theory including scientific theory or deeply ingrained religious belief has to be unrealistic. We can only see what we see at the time that we see it. We can only hear what we hear at the time that we hear it. We can only taste what we taste at the time that we taste it. We can only smell what we smell at the time that we smell it. We can only feel what we feel at the time that we feel it. All of this activity can only take place in the here and now. The only freedom of will each one of us has is the ability to pretend to be someone other than the person we are. An ant can only ever be an ant consigned its whole life to really only ever being an ant reliably always performing ant actions. Although a man can only really know what his senses tell him from moment to moment, he can behave as if he is a special kind of man. As he goes through life, he can acquire reassuring labels, licenses, and diplomas that pay no attention to the limitations of anyone’s unfortunate individual reality, but are prized documents dedicated to the invaluable individual procuring of common unreal abstraction that floats in the mists of the there and then.
However, both man and ant eventually end. Both man and ant are somehow absorbed into other life forms for all of life is immortal, it just undergoes constant change.
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ni wrote on May. 18, 2007 @ 02:20 GMT
This attachment is a possible dark energy model developed decades ago. Just to see what comments(if any)are generated
attachments:
possible_candidate_for_dark_energy.doc
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Hal wrote on May. 18, 2007 @ 23:12 GMT
That's a great question about whether the past could be infinite. We often consider the future to be infinite but I think what we mean is that for any fixed time T1 we can find later events than T1. It doesn't mean that we expect that there would be a time T2 in the future such that for any finite time T1 from the present, T2 is later than T1 - in other words, that there would be times an actual infinity later than the present.
Some of the same considerations could apply to an infinite past. Do we mean that for any finite time T1 in the past, there would be events before that? Or do we mean that there is a time T2 in the past such that for any finite time T1 in the past, T2 is before T1? Times an actual infinity earlier than the present?
We might call these the potentially infinite past (PIP) and the actually infinite past (AIP). As implied above, the same considerations apply to the future, since the future and past are relative.
The AIP is certainly more interesting and challenging. It raises the question, could there be objects that are infinitely old, whose creation time is before any finite time in the past? Black holes can last forever, if their inflow is faster than their Hawking radiation. However over an infinite time period we might expect random fluctuations in inflow rate which could eventually cause the size to drop to zero, whereby the hole would disappear.
We could model the size of the black hole as a 1 dimensional biased random walk where the hole disappears if the path ever crosses zero. If the probability of getting smaller is >= 1/2 then eventually the path will cross zero. If the probability is < 1/2 then the hole can avoid this fate. However in that case the size will grow without limit and the hole will be infinitely large after an infinite time. I think the probability of finding a finite-size, infinitely old black hole would be zero.
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Mike Archer replied on Nov. 10, 2010 @ 19:34 GMT
Does anybody remember the lessons learned from Olber's Paradox? The universe cannot be infinite, and Olber's Paradox explains why. Check it out.
Perhaps the reality of the Paradox is yet another reason behind some scientists inventing parallel universes (actually, somewhat of an oxymoron; the universe is the system of All interacting things; therefore it is and can only be one), since a finite universe points to the idea of a creator whatever that may be...Heaven forbid.
Mike Archer
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Philip Janes replied on Nov. 11, 2010 @ 19:15 GMT
Mike,
Is it Friday the 13th already? Olbers' paradox is the Jason of unreal paradoxes. It has been resolved in so many ways! Yet people keep raising it from the dead. The
Wikipedia article includes six separate explanations of why the night sky is black, and none of them assume it is finite. Check it out.
As for multiple universes, to loosely quote Bill Clinton, "It depends on what the definition of IS is."
There are degrees of reality. If your imagination IS then anything you can imagine is part of the universe. We can narrow that down a bit by defining a physical universe. Narrowing a bit more, we have OUR physical universe, which might be described as everything on our plane of existence, i.e. our space-time continuum. Then we have our visible universe, which is everything within a Hubble limit of us.
The main reason scientists have hypothesized alternate, parallel or tangent universes has to do with the results of double slit experiments. In
my own model, our universe is part of a greater fractal universe. Our universe exists between the scale of the Planck length and that of the cosmic foam. Our cosmic foam (having a median bubble size roughly 10^24 meter across) is the ether foam of a super-universe; our ether foam (having a median bubble size roughly 10^-35 meter across) is the cosmic foam of a sub-universe. Interaction between scalewise universes can only be inferred; it can never be directly observed.
The arrow of time reverses from one scale-wise universe to the next, so the greater fractal universe exists outside of time, and thus has no beginning or end. If you are religiously inclined, you might wish to call the greater fractal universe God.
Tangent universes are not an integral part of my model, but they might help to make sense of fact (according to my model) that the sub-universe past coincides with our future and vice versa. Either our future is predestined, or all of our possible futures will happen for us, and therefore they have already happened from the perspective of inhabitants of the sub-universe.
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Mike Archer replied on Nov. 13, 2010 @ 03:32 GMT
Hi, Philip:
I don't see how the Wikipedia article you mention resolves the paradox in a way that permits the universe to be infinite, but it does mention at the get-go that:
"In order to explain Olbers' paradox, it is necessary to account for the relatively low brightness of the night sky in relation to the circle of our sun. The universe is only finitely old, and stars have existed...
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Hi, Philip:
I don't see how the Wikipedia article you mention resolves the paradox in a way that permits the universe to be infinite, but it does mention at the get-go that:
"In order to explain Olbers' paradox, it is necessary to account for the relatively low brightness of the night sky in relation to the circle of our sun. The universe is only finitely old, and stars have existed only for part of that time."
"The universe is only finitely old,"...
Did you miss this?
Actually, it looks like only one of the possible alternate explanations does not require a finite universe, but even such notables as Paul Davies has clearly set forth the resolution of Olber's Paradox for the observable universe that must be finite, even though he is also "seeking" other "universes" as well.
If there is but one universe as all sane people understand as the system of all interacting things (Since it is all, one cannot add anything to to it. Since you like math, what is the problem with "all plus one?" You'll need some logic as well.), the resolution of Olber's Paradox demonstrates that the universe is indeed finite.
And so to get around this, people start proposing such things as "degrees of reality." Now, who decides how many degrees are involved at any given time? By the bye, who determined there are only degrees? How did he or she know this? Why,...I'll bet it's just another theory without proof. Friday the 13th indeed.
As for double slit experiments, and let's add some aspects of quantum mechanics as well, I have recently joined, so to speak, the camp of Roger Penrose who recognizes the unwarranted philosophy grafted onto the imprecision of such mathematics and experiments that "appear" to demonstrate certain things that, in any event, never seem to impact the classical world in any appreciable way. Why is that? Just imagination? We can't figure it out yet, but we know it's there, kinda like the claim that one cannot define pornography, but he knows it when he sees it. Of course, we can't even see many things claimed to be there by some physicists, and these people laugh at other people who claim belief in an invisible divine being.
Isn't that interesting? If one cannot prove the existence of a divine being, but still believes in one because of observations of the ways the world works, and perhaps some sophisticated philosophical reasoning etc., that person is said to be supremely ignorant, no matter how rational he may be.
However, if one cannot prove the existence of a mathematical universe or hypothetical particle and on and on, but still believes in such things because they fit into highly speculative formulae, why that person is said to be brilliant. And in greater support of the fellow's brilliance, we must marvel at the claim that such things can never be observed. Where are your clothes, Emperor?
Ah, yes. The residents of many glass houses don't even recognize their own faith which is less rational than the faith in a divine being may be. To be sure, a finite universe points to a divine being, so for the atheist/marginal agnostic, this must be opposed by any means no matter how irrational they may be. In a roundabout way, such wasted would-be science is so silly that it makes the philosopher's God appear much more reasonable. An unintended consequence of being so radically opposed to a Divine Being (not to be confused with a fractal universe), another Tower of Babel is being constructed by various physicists who speak in "mathematical" tongues that fewer and fewer can understand because at bottom it is more gibberish.
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Now, what good is inferring any supposed reality like other universes that cannot be observed or tested? Can you appreciate the honesty of someone like Lee Smolin who laments the fact that more and more mathematical-type theories are being proposed and asked to be accepted even though they can never be scientifically tested? Indeed, no longer science, but mere fantasy and ideology wrapped in some mathematical garb.
The arrow of time? Talk about a non-existent problem. Go back to ancient philosophers for the best understanding of time as the measure of motion. Hone in on this concept: The measure of motion. Stay focused on this and do not attempt to graft anything else onto it. This takes away all problems and fantasies regarding going backwards or sidewise. And if you possess a most sophisticated and rational understanding of relativity, you will realize that it is a most absolutist theory of reality despite the misnomer that allows people to falsely rationalize. But here's the key: the event is real no matter who or what perceives it and when. The event is real and absolute.
Enough for now, and take heart if the above is a bit too much common sense for you to handle. Why,... in an alternate universe, you are quite a rational fellow,...only you'll never be able to interact with him, so you may be doomed to be locked in your foam forever. Ha, Ha!
Good luck!
Mike Archer
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UFO_pilot replied on Nov. 13, 2010 @ 21:41 GMT
Would there even be a paradox if Mr. Olbers and those before him had the ability to see in microwaves? The paradox states roughly: "Why is the night sky dark? The answer is that it isn't. No matter where you look, you see a very uniform distribution of microwaves. I realize the current accepted explanation for the CMB is from the SLS from the Big Bang, but what prevents it from being evidence of a eternal past with an infinite number of nearly uniform sources redshifted into the microwave spectrum via accelerated expansion?
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Mike Archer replied on Nov. 14, 2010 @ 08:06 GMT
Greetings, UFO Pilot:
Nice flight above California recently.
Now, instead of talking about irreleveant microwaves, try to think about the resolution of Olber's Paradox by the realization that the universe cannot be infinite in time since thermal dynamic equilibrium would have already been reached and we'd either be on fire or in ice. Olber's Paradox remains a problem if the universe is accepted as infinite in time and space.
Pleased to enlighten you to basic reality.
Mike Archer
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FQXi Administrator Anthony Aguirre wrote on May. 19, 2007 @ 00:32 GMT
William:
I'm hopeless biased in favor of past-eternal universes being possible, based on some
work I've done on the subject with Steven Gratton.
What I love about applying physics to 'philosophical' questions is how they can sometimes be resolved in a way that you would never have guessed based on pure thought. For example, anyone before general relativity (or really Riemannian geometry) would have been utterly baffled at how the universe could be finite, yet have no boundary. But it's utterly simple once you understand the geometry of a 3-sphere.
I think this may be another case, particularly in terms of what you
nicely called the 'endless chain of causation'. What Steven and I found is that if you try to really understand a fully steady-state model (like the classic steady-state cosmology, or an eternally-inflating cosmology that is statistically independent of time), then there are indeed boundary conditions that define the cosmology, but that these are not applied at any particular *time* -- rather, they are placed on a 'null' spacetime surface that is 'earlier' than all times -- even through times go arbitrarily early. It's a bit hard to explain this without the mathematics, I'm afraid, and in some sense that's precisely the point -- the structure of these models is something I at least would never have come up with any way other than following the mathematics where it went.
That being said, I also think 'philosophical' thinking is quite important. What led Steven and I (or at least I, he can speak for himself) to do this project at all was the conviction that if we can define a cosmology that approaches a steady-state (as eternal inflation does), then we should be able to make that steady-state exact, which is to say past-eternal.
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Steve Dufourny replied on Jun. 2, 2012 @ 14:46 GMT
In fact it is you the pseudo stealer and not tegamark, it is you the stealer frsutrated by lack of competence to ponder a real work.In fact you are a false scientist !!! AZnd you know what stealer, I pray for your redemption.Already we see in your face, your real heart ! You are a poor frustrated thinkling that all is permitted because you have monney, me I have no monney but I have my universal spherical faith. Yiour strategy is simple in fact, you think that you are going to steal my theory for a nobel prize Anthony ! put it wher I think and kill me , be sure, because if not, you shall be in my spherical crackpot index crreated at New York.And what ? you are going to phone to your friends because you are now in a bizare position.Probably that your hormons increase proportionaly to your hates.Mr Tegmark is better and have a better heart than you I am persuaded, we see only with our hearth my friend, the essential is invisible for eyes, you think what Mr Aguire the future mediatical frustrated.Now I am repeating, buy killers because it is your only solution! And still, even dead I will continue my personal spherization, You will pay , here on earth, after it is not a probelm because the death does not exist simply, I will be in your dreams during the nightn like a sphericala judge.Not need of monney for that poor frustrated , jealous and uncompetent to ponder general and revolutionary works.So you insist because you are limited simply. Choose a good strategy and good killers. Me I am already dead you know because I have suffered so much in my life, and what Anthony the pseudo scientist. Me and Mr Tegmark we can make ineterszting things, you no ! In fact it is simply not your road the generality Anthony .Say hello to Lisi and Joy , th, and friends ....Bruce steinaman ahahah, it is me who plays with you now ! and be sure that the play has begun only you know.We are now in an eternal play, and be sure you shall loose on the line time !
Stealer of foundamentals.
Mr Tegmark, make a better team please, or I don't know me, put them at the exterior of your team.They are not good for your integrity and the reputation.
You know Mr Aguire , the play has begun now , you are now 1 a stealer,2 a killer,3 a frustrated........buy better books of maths and physics !!!But I am insisting, make an other job, I don't know me, the marketing for example and the publicity.
Regarsd
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Georgina Parry replied on Jun. 19, 2012 @ 10:19 GMT
Dear Anthony,
I am so glad that you left a message on this blog.I've only just come across it.
I am interested to hear about your work on a past eternal model.I read the abstract but probably would not understand the whole paper.I also think it very interesting that you followed the mathematics where it went.And that you think (?thought) philosophical thinking is quite important.
I hope my essay will be interesting to you. As I intend to talk about other ways of thinking and what comes from that. I also hope you will be reminded of what you wrote here.
PS thank you for FQXi.
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FQXi Administrator Anthony Aguirre wrote on May. 19, 2007 @ 00:45 GMT
Hal:
I think you're probably right that any given object will be impermanent, even if the universe goes on forever.
I think the 'bias' that it is reasonable for the universe to be future-infinite but not past infinite is that we can easily imagine the universe continuing infinitely into the future -- what would stop it?
But actually I think it's a bit tricker than this. If we were to take a finite system, it could indeed go on 'forever' but by attaining equilibrium. After that, the system would become *timeless* in that there would be no thermodynamic arrow of time defined by entropy increase. Thus I don't think it's quite right to say it is 'continuing into the future'.
Going toward the past we can also worry about entropy. Very crudely: if we go into the past, entropy must decrease. What happens when it hits zero? There is nowhere to go. This leaves the possibilities that:
(a) we change the rules (this is the standard approach, wherein we invoke a strong gravitational singularity, which our theories cannot treat), or
(b) entropy starts to increase again (i.e. the arrow of time 'reverses'), or
(c) entropy was always infinite, so that no matter how far back we go, we never run out.
The past-eternal models I've studied have some aspects of both (b) and (c).
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narsep replied on Jun. 30, 2010 @ 09:41 GMT
Have a look to my threat (model) appearing in the topic:
http://www.fqxi.org/community/forum/topic/391
according
to this the slice (of "conceivable space universe") is moving like a pendulum from one pole to the other of a spherical unchasnged "space universe".
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narsep replied on Jun. 30, 2010 @ 11:34 GMT
Can anyone speculate when the pendulum started and when it will stop?
For an answer the "physical laws" of a super-universe is needed.
In other words, NO answer is possible whithin our universe.
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narsep replied on Oct. 20, 2010 @ 10:32 GMT
If there was no friction pendulum will never reach an equilibrium and it will continue moving for ever and ever.("continuing into the future" does not seem to be my words)
As far as entropy concerns: it increases as slice ("conceivable universe") is moving from poles to the equator and decreases as slice is moving from the equator to poles. So (b) and may (a) are "feasible" possibilities.
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Gevin Giorbran wrote on May. 20, 2007 @ 08:31 GMT
The question of an infinite past or future relies on what is ultimately possible of configurations or states. Is the space of all possibilities definite, bounded by extremes, or indefinite. Big bang or not, an expanding universe in reverse eventually collapses into a singularity (Alpha). As the previous post remarks, once at Alpha there is no where to go (but expansion). In the future of expansion, even more evident with accelerating expansion, conditions move ever nearer toward a physical state of absolute zero, or a perfectly flat and empty universe. One can claim the big bang didn't happen in the past or that time can never reach zero in the future, but the two extremes are plainly boundaries in the space of all possibilities. Like fractions between 0 and 1, the space of all possible configurations is infinite, but it is bounded by extremes, and therefore not indefinite. Consequently neither the past or future can be infinite without eventual repetition. Time could oscillate between the two extremes forever but eventually all the possible arrangements of configurations would be used up, and the course of time would have to repeat. In an infinitely extended flat universe they could all be used up in one journey from Alpha to zero. Fortunately for us it appears time is more selective than that.
I don't believe past or future is infinite, and agree that once an equilibrium is reached there is no meaning to the idea of ordinary time. What I don't agree with is the notion that an equilibrium exists somewhere between Alpha and zero. Zero is the equilibrium. Just as time begins at Alpha, time ends at zero.
http://everythingforever.com
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Reason McLucus wrote on May. 21, 2007 @ 05:46 GMT
Challenging the Standard Model of the origin of the universe could be difficult because many people are attempting to use science as a substitute for religion. Religion has tradionally attempted to explain the origin of the universe. Religious concepts are doctrines which are to be accepted without question. Those who claim a "scientific" explanation for the origen of the universe want the same certainty that they have the one and only possible explanation as those who rely on traditional religion. They ignore the fact that empirical science concepts are always subject to change as more information becomes available.
For these individuals, the idea that the universe began with a perfect linear explosion of a black hole with matter moving away at or above the speed of light. Then this matter supposedly changed its mind and decided to clump together to form stars and planets. I don't see any way the universe could have begun in this fashion without the intervention of some higher dimension intelligence (ie, God).
They ignore the possibility that the idea that the universe has always existed would be more consistent with a theology that the universe exists because of natural processes than the Standard Model.
If there was a Big Bang resulting from a natural process it is more likely that it would have involved a spinning black hole releasing jets of material in a spiral fashion. I support this particular model, but the idea of an infinite past is a possibility. The two might even be combined with galaxies collapsing and coming back with Little Bangs.
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Reason McLucus wrote on May. 21, 2007 @ 06:17 GMT
I though of the following just after I hit the submit post button.
Are you aware of the flaw in the reasoning that claims that the universe is expanding at an increasing rate? This claim falsely suggests that the greater red shifts in light from the more distant galaxies indicates that the universe is expanding at an increasing rate. In fact, it would indicate the exact opposite if the red shift isn't a result of what some have called "lazy light".
The flaw becomes apparent by looking at the information in four dimensions. Light left a distant galaxy at time "T" when the galaxy's relative velocity in respect to earth was "V". At time T + 1 light left a closer galaxy at V - x. At time T + 2 light left an even closer glaxy at V - x - y. Examined in this fashion it is obvious that the rate of expansion slowed over time rather than increased.
Images of distant galaxies moving toward each other would tend to support some form of "lazy light" theory.
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William Orem wrote on May. 23, 2007 @ 18:43 GMT
A lot of good comments here, and I want to respond to a couple --
Anthony -- taking a look at your and Steven's work (well beyond my meager ken, to be sure) it seems that your model arrives through the math at a version of "block time‚" or "the block universe," whereby all events embedded in time coexist in some unspecified higher dimension. The abstract says, for example, that "The model...
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A lot of good comments here, and I want to respond to a couple --
Anthony -- taking a look at your and Steven's work (well beyond my meager ken, to be sure) it seems that your model arrives through the math at a version of "block time‚" or "the block universe," whereby all events embedded in time coexist in some unspecified higher dimension. The abstract says, for example, that "The model admits an interesting arrow of time that is well-defined and consistent for all physical observers that can communicate, even while the statistical description of the entire universe admits a symmetry that includes time-reversal." Is it fair to read this "steady-state statistical distribution of regions‚" that "hold(s) at all times," is past- and future-infinite, and has past-future symmetry, but in which physical observers experience apparent temporal asymmetry, as an infinite block universe?
For folks who haven't run across this idea before: Think of a film strip, in which each frame represents a quantized instant of time. Some observer, usually thought of as having consciousness, perceives the film to be running through its internal projector, giving it the sense that the past is different from the future, entropy is on the rise, and so forth.
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Meanwhile, a meta-observer outside the system (someone with what Stephen Hawking recently called "the angels' point of view") would realize that time is an illusion, and every moment, in fact, coexists. More precisely, time is real for macroscopic observers embedded in the film strip, but is not a property that can be applied to the whole. Thus the "block" analogy, where all of the future and past are imagined as an unchanging, four-dimensional block.
If time really is this way, perhaps the question of an infinite past reduces to: could the film strip be infinite in length? Is there a logical objection to an unbounded or infinite block universe? (A Mobius block?)
This issue connects to Hal's points in an interesting way:
Some philosophers who oppose the infinite past idea as nonsensical argue that in order for the real present moment T1 to be occurring, an infinite number of such real moments T2,3,4 . . . must already have occurred. Since no real infinite quantity can have been exhausted, the present could not yet have been "reached."
I myself don't dismiss this objection out of hand, thought I think its strength is subtler than it at first appears. The power of the objection is that it applies to any moment -- indeed, to every moment -- in an infinite temporal series. In such a series, any point is preceded by an infinite number of points, so the whole series can never get "started"; it appears to be internally inconsistent as a model, something we know cannot be correct even before we try to test it.
However, others point out that such an objection, if coherent, should rule out any infinite series, and we have evidence of plenty of perfectly well-behaved infinite series: the integers, for example. Granted, these are not causally linked series in the normal sense of the word (is the existence of 4 causally predicated on the existence of 3? I'm not sure that's as funny as it sounds). A whimsical example that occurs to me is that we may one day discover that we have been writing pi out backwards; in fact, it ends with . . . 95141.3, and the initial figure is an infinite ways off. So what? You couldn't ever find that initial figure, but that wouldn't stop the series from "concluding in the present," so to speak.
More to the point, the block universe may obviate the eternal causal-chain problem. In the block universe nothing would be actually moving forward in a way that traditionally defines causal links: the whole is *already* in place, and the whole is, itself, outside time. Time's arrow would only have a perceptual status, not an ontological one. This might agree both with the work of cosmologists who prefer an infinite past, and with the philosophers' conceptual difficulty: an infinite past would indeed seem to be an impossibility, but only from the perspective of a time-embedded observer. No?
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Gevin Giorbran wrote on May. 24, 2007 @ 10:17 GMT
William it depends what you mean by infinite past. The time embedded observer evaluates time as duration, as a series, as change. For time to regress infinitely without repetition there would have to exist an absolutely indefinite measure of unique configurations to match the infinite regress of time. However, our collapsing past reveals that the space of possible configurations is bounded by the extreme of collapse or the point of the big bang. If we turn to the question of the future being infinite, again we run into the extreme of absolute zero. The space of all possibilities is not indefinite or unbounded.
The angel observer outside of time evaluates the time of existence itself, not change, which is one enormous moment. It doesn't have a past or future. It just is. The angel sees all possibilities simultaneously, and only can evaluate time as something embedded in the whole of existence, like a direction in space. The angel sees any repetition of states as the same series of time. So the angel's question is, why does this direction in space follow a particular path or course through the space of possibilities? If possibilities were bounded in only one direction, say the future, then the reason could be that time is searching for a balance that doesn't exist, moving away from the definite group of possibilities in its past toward the forever larger group of possibilities in its future. But if the space of possibilities is bounded in both directions by extremes, then a direction in space that is guided by a computation of what is probable would only be able to travel away from imbalance toward a distinct overall position of balance in state space. Time (probabilistic space) would begin at the extreme of imbalance, such as positive or negative, and end at an extreme of balance, such as absolute zero. The positive or negative states would be seen as two halves of the balanced whole.
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FQXi Administrator Anthony Aguirre wrote on May. 25, 2007 @ 19:19 GMT
William:
Thanks for bringing up this interesting idea of the 'block universe'. Probably that deserves its own whole blog and thread (maybe I'll work on one). But briefly, and in relation to past-infinite universes, yes, I think there is a sense in which the 'eternal' boundary conditions suggest a block universe at some fundamental level. (Amusingly, my early talks on this even included an Angel that could move backward in time:)
But at the same time I'm not convinced this is really any different than any other cosmological model, in which you assume that at some early time the universe was in a precise physical state. My opinion is that questions surrounding the meaning of time, 'now' or free will could all be asked in either context equally easily (and answered with equal difficulty!).
Gevin:
I don't think we have to assume that there a finite number of elements of the configuration space. And as I've said above, I also don't think we have to believe in an initial singularity, especially if inflation occurred. In particular, the classical 'singularity theorems' all make assumptions that either (a) simply do not apply to inflating universes, or (b) apply, but nevertheless allow models in which there is no singularity.
Much of people's thinking about this question relies on the classic big-bang model. But if inflation happened (and there is good reason to think that it did), then this thinking just does not apply.
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paul valletta wrote on May. 27, 2007 @ 01:25 GMT
Having only recently read paper by Anthony, I need to digest some of it's content further, but I do believe on what is basically the concept of descriptive "finite" size, embedded into an "infinity" Time, relatively speaking of course. One can arrive at a continuum 2-d mobius pathway, but then one asks which is "inside" and which is "outside"?
Asking the question:is the past smaller (size) than the future?, the same as asking, is the past_time equivilent to the future_time, regarding "timescales"?
A finite "length" can be bounded across in an infinity amount of "time" (one can cross a road at different speeds?), but a finite "time" cannot be circumvented by an infinity speed length, or particle?
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Michael Shermis wrote on May. 28, 2007 @ 18:35 GMT
William:
My father (Sam) has looked through the posts and wanted me to throw this up there to add to the discussion.
Up until the 1960s there was a conflict between those who maintained that, in some way, the universe always was and always will be, worlds without end. These were the steady state boys (and some girls.) There were those, who since the late 1920s, believed that some sort of gigantic explosion generated the universe. Given the lack of hard data, the conflict simmered R.W. Wilson and Arno Penzias, accidentally in one of those bits of serendipity came up with an important bit of evidence (for which they later received the Nobel Prize). While cleaning up a radio telescope--literally removing bat guano and pigeon excrement which they thought had corrupted the data--they kept on hearing the same noise. The pigeons were short, though each denies doing the deed. The noise was steady and coming from all areas of the universe. New York, oddly enough, was ruled out as the source. There was also measurable heat which couldn't be accounted for. What could account for this steady noise? They decided that it was the left over sound of an explosion. The term "Big Bang," which laypersons could glaum on to easily, was coined. Thus, the Big Bang theory replaced or rather out-competed the Steady State theorists. The Big Bang is the standard version of the origins of the universe. Further research--over 20+years--revealed that the best date for this explosion was 13.8 billion years ago. So, the standard version is that the Big Bang occurred 13.8 billion years ago and accounts for the totality of the universe as we now know and see it.
However, the half-life of any theory, no matter how well thought-out, how much data support it, is not long. Individuals kept on coming up with both logical and empirical questions, which, they felt, were not answered by proponents of the standard version. In easy terms, What came before the Big Bang? One answer, created by some guys with one foot in quantum mechanics is this: an event created by another universe accidentally brought this universe into existence. This presupposed not one universe but many--separated by what? An infinity of space-time? But how can you have an infinity of space time with finite universes? Aha!
Meanwhile, let me work on the problem that is raised by the concept of infinity and its relation to the space-time continuum, i.e., if space and time end, so does infinity, no matter how defined. If infinity ends, so does space-time.
So more later...
Michael
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William Orem wrote on Jun. 4, 2007 @ 15:06 GMT
Responses to other folks coming, but Reason McLucus' post got me thinking, and I'd like to hear people's thoughts on a cultural issue (side point to our main discussion, perhaps, but related). I don't think we need invoke gods to understand an infinite past, myself, though clearly this is a foundational question of the first order, and I do wonder about the influence of the religious impulse on its expression. The SCM, for example, was first proposed by a Jesuit priest. At the time of Lemaitre's "primeval atom" suggestion, most other folks -- including Einstein -- weren't reading the data that way. It has been argued that religious thinking was imposed (I don't mean with malevolence) on cosmological model-building at this point, and that, as UCSD cosmologist and staunch anti-SCM advocate Geoffrey Burbidge said when I spoke to him last year, "People liked a beginning. It's in the religion."
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The suspicion is that an infinite past universe would obviate the need for a creator god, and thus would be harder to accept for certain cultures than a model that has an "in the Beginning" moment. (I can't help but remember that when I was in high school, Jesuit instructors argued to us exactly this -- that the Big Bang confirmed what was described in Judeo-Christian tradition.) Clearly science is different than religion: it's data-driven, amenable to disconfirmation, and so on--but exactly which data are relevant and how they are to be interpreted is indeed a matter in which cultural expectations will come into play.
It's worth noting, also, that some forms of Hinduism posit not only past-infinite but an infinite number of past-infinite universes, while other religious systems have conceived of cyclic universes, dream universes, egg-universes, and so on -- so it would be hard to argue that a religious perspective in general allows, or disallows, one particular type of model-building. No?
this post has been edited by the author since its original submission
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aca wrote on Sep. 11, 2007 @ 13:03 GMT
Dear William,
The main problem for all cosmological theories is whether or not there exists quantum gravity. It is believed that this problem is related to the cosmological constant problem i.e. the dark energy problem, as well as the problem of time arrow, etc.... Now, there is no fully satisfactory quantum theory of gravity and one of the candidates (string/M-theory) has a lot of problems to predict known facts as well as to solve the above mentioned problems. It is true that the Standard model or the GUT coupled with classical gravity does not predict the observational value of the cosmological constant because SM is put in classical curved space-time background where there the problem of its vacuum energy i.e. unitarity, is evident. Therefore, wedding between QFT and clasical gravity produces a bad marridge. Because of that, it is very important to marry quantum mechanics and gravity in sence of noncommutative (quantum) geometry of space-time which is an old physical arena of the Universe. Philosophically, even QFT possesses classical space-time background as well as string theory so that the main problem for me is to find such theory of the Universe which will be background free and free parameter independent i.e. without the put-by-hand assumptions. It seems that such kind of theory (quantum loop gravity) already exists but it has a free parameter and its relationship with well known facts is tiny (see literature about relationship between loop gravity and entropy of black hole). Historically, our progress to understand misteries of the Universe is so far closely connected with our knowledge of the structure of space-time i.e. geometry from Euclid to Einstein and I think that future progress still lies there.
Best regards,
aca
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paul valletta wrote on Oct. 12, 2007 @ 07:47 GMT
Looking for the Big-Bang in our distant past, is analogous to an observer trying to locate a single Electron, using a single Eye as the only detection impliment!
It is Here, There and Everywhere.
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John Merryman wrote on Oct. 13, 2007 @ 14:11 GMT
It first occurred to me that the BBT might not be the best explanation upon reading that Omega=1. If the force of gravity and the expansion of space are in equilibrium, where is the additional expansion for the universe as a whole to beexpanding? It seems like a big convective cycle of expanding radiation and collpsing mass. This suggests black holes are the eye of gravitational storms and the CMBR is the dew point of radiation in space. To the extent gravity curves space in and mass radiates its energy back out, does radiation effectively curve space back out? There are hills between those gravity wells? That way, the further light travels, the more it's spectrum is stretched and the faster the source appears to be receding, but this doesn't account for all that does fall into gravitational wells, keeping the pressure from actually causing the galaxies to be moving apart. This external pressure might also account for the effect on the Pioneer spacecraft, as well as causing the outer rims of galaxies to spin faster then is accounted for by the amount of mass in them, thus solving the need for dark matter.
Also redshifting appears to equate to a cosmological constant, which is fixed to balance gravity, so this would explain why the redshift doesn't slow as standard BBT assumed and hense needed dark energy to fill in the gap.
Inflation Theory was added to make BBT work, yet it assumes that space itself is expanding, not just that the galaxies are moving apart in space. If this is so, why doesn't the speed of light increase proportionally, since it is our most stable measure of space?
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John Merryman wrote on May. 31, 2008 @ 23:24 GMT
I thought it might be of interest to add that the Alternative Cosmology Group has another conference coming up;
http://www.cosmology.info/2008conference/
I think time can be best understood as a consequence of motion, rather than a dimensional projection.
While physical reality goes from past events to future ones, the information of these events goes the other way. First...
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I thought it might be of interest to add that the Alternative Cosmology Group has another conference coming up;
http://www.cosmology.info/2008conference/
I think time can be best understood as a consequence of motion, rather than a dimensional projection.
While physical reality goes from past events to future ones, the information of these events goes the other way. First it is future potential, then past circumstance. If time is a fundamental dimension, then physical reality proceeds along it, from past events to future ones, but if time is a consequence of motion, then physical reality is simply energy in space and the events, once created, are replaced by the next and recede into the past. It isn't presentism because time as a point would be meaningless as a measure of motion. The only absolute time would be like absolute temperature; the complete absence of it. Of course most motion is at the speed of light, but we cannot process it in real time, so our minds create flashes of perception, like frames of film. Thus to us, time does seem like a series of instants. So the physical brain moves forward in time, but the mind is a record of the events receding into the past.
Consider a thermal medium, say a pot of hot water, with lots of water molecules moving about. To construct a timekeeping device out of this we would measure the motion of one of these points of reference against the medium it is moving through. The point is the hand and the medium is the face of the clock. Obviously all the other points are hands of their own clocks, but are medium/face for all other clocks. The motion of any point/hand is balanced by the reaction of the medium/face of the clock. So to the hand of the clock, the face goes counterclockwise. At any one moment, the positions of all these points constitute an event, so while any and all of them go from past events to future ones, the medium against which any point is being judged is the overall context, which once created, is displaced by the next, as all these individual points move around, so the events go from future potential to past circumstance. The illusion of direction is created because the reference point moves through the series of circumstances, though these events go the other way. There are innumerable points of reference describing their own narrative, so every potential clock constitutes its own measure of time. Whether the earth rotating and creating days, or a cesium atom going through transitions, or strings and vibrations, conserved energy goes toward the future, as the information defining it recedes into the past. As a measure of motion, it would be meaningless to ascribe a dimensionless point to time, as that would be a total lack of motion, like a temperature of absolute zero, so any description requiring time has an inherently fuzzy position.
If time is simply a measure of the motion of energy, what does it say for the model of the universe that describes it as a unit of time that internally goes from beginning to end, as it externally goes from being in the future to being in the past?
We do perceive gravity as curving the measure of space around a body, yet radiation climbs directly out of this gravity well. Could it be that radiation does effectively have the opposite effect on space, since it does expand, just as mass contracts? Since it would be a far more gradual effect and effectively hidden in the vicinity of a gravity field, with no point of reference around which it curves, the only viable proof would be the redshift of light from distant galaxies. When the effect first described as proof of dark energy was first discovered by Perlmutter, et al, in 1998, it was that the supposed rate of expansion wasn’t being slowed by gravity, since the assumption was that it was all a consequence of the initial singularity and should be cooling off. On the other hand, if redshift is an optical effect on light crossing enormous expanses of space, with the effect compounded, so that redshift is multiplied the further light travels, so that eventually the source appears to recede at the speed of light and beyond which it is no longer visible, then we have the signature of a cosmological constant that balances gravity, not the afterglow of a singularity with dark energy tacked on to explain the observation of continuing expansion. Since this is an optical effect, the actual sources are no more receding then a gravitationally lensed object moves around in space because an intervening gravity field makes it appear that way. Therefore the energy to make these objects actually move away is unnecessary. A possible analogy would be running up a down escalator, with the increased space falling into gravity wells,increasing the external pressure on them and providing a cause for the effect attributed to dark matter.
One of the main reasons to require a direction of time is that entropy is increasing and usable energy is decreasing, eventually to reach thermal equilibrium, but what if a complete thermal equilibrium, given the level of energy present, is just not stable. The cosmic microwave background radiation seems to be the energy closest to equilibrium, but there is a definite phase transition at 2.7k. Space doesn’t seem able to hold energy above that in a stable, uniform state, so it is constantly collapsing and expanding around equilibrium, creating a perpetual convective cycle of gravity sinks balancing a sea of expanding space defined by radiating energy. So there would be no need for a singularity as uncaused cause of low entropy state.
These opposing effects would also describe the two directions of time, with mass as the discrete units of measure that go from being in the future to being in the past, while they go from start to finish, as the hand of the clock is the expanding energy that is constantly leaving the old forms and going on to create new ones. An analogy of this would be of a factory, where the units go from beginning to end, as the process moves on, consuming more raw material and expelling finished product.
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Giannis Chantas wrote on Jul. 26, 2008 @ 13:48 GMT
hi all,
I had an idea about the infinite past. Suppose the following thought experiment with a Markov chain: each day there is a random variable x_i (for example the position of an electron) which depends only on the previous day's variable x_(i-1). Assuming that there are infinite random variables before this day x_i, x(i-1), x_(i-2). The question that arises is what is the probability of a configuration of the variables. It is
p(x_i,x_(i-1),x_(i-2))=p(x_i|x_(i-1))p(x_(i-1))p(x_(i-2))...
The result is the product of infinite terms smaller than one (and positive), so the result is always zero!
What is the problem with that? It is impossible for the electron to be at any time at any place given that there was inifinite time before that.
I am looking forward for comments
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Giannis Chantas wrote on Jul. 26, 2008 @ 13:56 GMT
Sorry for the mistake, the equation is p(x_i,x_(i-1),x_(i-2))=p(x_i|x_(i-1))p(x_(i-1)|x_(i-2))p(x_(
i-2)|x_(i-3))...
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amrit wrote on Dec. 8, 2008 @ 13:12 GMT
past is not infinite, universe is an atemporal phenomena, past and future belongs to the human mind
attachments:
THE_THEORY_OF_ATEMPORALITY__SORLI_2008.pdf
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amrit wrote on Jan. 13, 2009 @ 17:20 GMT
yes past is infinite
and is all contained in the present moment
present moment is the only one that exists,
humans we experience atemporal space as a present moment
ETERNITY IS NOW
attachments:
2_ETERNITY_IS_NOW_sorli_2009.pdf
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amrit wrote on Jan. 13, 2009 @ 17:41 GMT
according to my research universe is a system in a permanent dynamic equilibrium, no beginning, no end
see more on web site of CRONOS INSTITUTE - LOMONOSOV UNIVERSITY
http://www.chronos.msu.ru/discussions/sorli_dynami
c.html
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Jayakar Johnson Joseph wrote on Jan. 23, 2009 @ 02:47 GMT
In a top-to-bottom approach, if we consider universe as a triplet cluster of Heterogeneous matters with embedded such sub-clusters of Heterogeneous matters up to a stratum at infinity, we can perceive that the past and future of the Universe are infinite, though there is oscillation of inflation and deflation of the Universe.
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atomiton1 wrote on Jan. 24, 2009 @ 22:05 GMT
Because time is a perception we put a measurement on. Based on changes in matter by physical and chemical reactions applied to a frame of reference. Time would not have exised before the creation of the first particle of matter. Therefore the past is not infinate.
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Len Malinowski wrote on Feb. 11, 2009 @ 06:43 GMT
Some very interesting concepts here. I developed Fractal Physics Theory, soon to be published In CS&F.
Please see my Infinite universe theory.
Regards,
Len
attachments:
CSNuclear_Explosion.doc
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Georgina Parry wrote on Feb. 22, 2009 @ 23:46 GMT
Time, as a dimension or line of measurement, along which past, present and future all exist as physical reality in the space-time continuum is imaginary or fictional. This is a "artificial" concept derived from brain function and storing of memories, imagining those things still exist in reality and imagining the future. It makes for interesting paradoxes and fantasy films.
A 3+1n spatial continuum, in which our universe moves along the 4th dimension, gives rise to the subjective experience of time. But time does not exist of itself within objective reality. There is no past or future only space that has been passed through or is yet to be passed through.
This incidentally solves the time travel paradoxes.
This does not conflict with relativity since relativity only applies to subjective reality and not objective reality. Subjective reality obeying the rules of relativity, objective reality being Newtonian. Separated by the Prime reality interface.
Einstein showed that time is an emergent phenomenon but did not then go on to explain what the 4th dimension actually represents. Although he did have doubts about the fundamental necessity of time.
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John Duffield wrote on Mar. 16, 2009 @ 19:23 GMT
Hello Georgina. I agree with your sentiment, though as I speak I don't know if I would concur with your detail. But meanwhile can I offer this:
You don't need time to have motion. You need motion to have time. IMHO the 13.7 billion years since the beginning of the universe is a measure of how much motion has occurred. It's 13.7 billion light years worth, compounded by the expansion of the universe. That's not to say the Big Bang was the absolute beginning. For all I know it might be a local phenomenom. It is otherwise for me a puzzle, because I don't know how to get something from nothing.
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Georgina Parry replied on Nov. 3, 2010 @ 23:37 GMT
I don't think it is possible to get something from nothing although some very clever mathematics has been done to show just that. I think it involves lots of assumptions about initial conditions and so allowing rule breaking.
It is far more plausible to me to assume that there was no absolute beginning. We see other objects around us have beginnings and endings,because of the occurrence of spatial changes in the arrangement of the matter comprising those objects.. from life forms, to rocks, buildings, volcanoes even planets and stars. So it is natural to assume that the universe must also have a beginning and end. This is not necessarily so.
A classic car left out unattended in the elements will rust and cease to function and eventually little will be left. However if it is protected and continuously maintained and restored it remains pristine. One car may be dismantled to provide parts for another. One beach may be eroded another formed and built up from the same sand.
If the universe through continuous change builds up and destroys structures recycling energy and matter then this process can continue without end. Far more like the simultaneous erosion and deposition processes we observe on the earth. Rather than the imagined one way street of entropy winding down the energy of the universe into a cold dead future. There is as much reason for it to be in a state of continuous eternal change giving a balance of destruction and organization as there is for it to be absolutely static and dead or non existent.
We see other objects come from somewhere or being made from other things and apply that to the universe, saying where did it come from? or what was it made from? Even who made it? This reasoning does not necessarily apply to the material universe. There may be intermittent local vastly destructive events that lead on to a new creation process whereby dust accumulates into new planets and stars etc but this need not encompass the entire material object universe simultaneously.
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Georgina Parry wrote on Mar. 17, 2009 @ 10:10 GMT
John,
Yes we agree, you don't need time to have change in position in space, that is objective reality. You do need motion to have time as experienced in subjective reality.
If there is no time in objective reality the structure giving rise to the universe is eternal.
In my opinion there are two possible beginnings for the universe, either a big bang when the universe has contracted to a critical mass, which re inflates the universe for a new cycle or there is a process of continuous recycling. That would release the energy of the universe gradually back to the exterior of the hypersphere rather than all in one big bang.
If this is mathematically possible, matter would reach the centre of the hypersphere and continue on to arrive back at the outside of the hypersphere having been disintegrated. The centre of the hypersphere would be akin to the singularity and the arrival back at the exterior of the hypersphere the elusive rapid inflation of the universe. From there it would be another cycle of coming together due to motion along the 4th dimension, as seen in the manifestation of gravity, development into matter and structure of greater complexity.Increasing order not entropy.
All energy is change of position in space. Therefore the distances observed reflect the energy of the universe at the time the light was emitted rather than directly reflecting age.
Also it is an electromagnetic image of the universe that is observed not the objective material universe itself, which can not be observed. That image is prone to distortion of various kinds. The age of the universe is based on the big bang cosmology model and dating of stars from observed luminosity. If either is an incorrect model or if distortion of the electromagnetic image gives incorrectly interpreted data, then it will effect the estimated age of the universe.The age of the universe is therefore a calculation informed by currently accepted models, which may or may not be correct.
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Peter Jackson wrote on Jun. 18, 2009 @ 19:34 GMT
It seems nature, by it's very nature, cannot be 'finite' as we understand it. I've been developing a 'triple helix' analysis and model development technique from morphology and other sources, and working on interlinked models with interesting results. They mainly rely on no 4th vectors or higher dimensions.
If space is expanding the more time light spends within it the greater it must be red shifted. Reason McLucas wrote above of the logic that increased red shift with distance did NOT demonstrate acceleration. Even without the 'greater time spent' element simple geometry proves it. Acceleration is purportedly over time. The light we see from a galaxy 10bn light yrs away left it just as light from one 12bn yrs away was coming past it. It therefore takes 2bn yrs longer to reach us from it's source. Let's say it's twice as red shifted as the light from the closer galaxy. This means that 2bn years AFTER the first light was emitted the rate of expansion as indicated by the 2nd galaxy is actually much LESS.
Assuming the expansion rate is even and geometry finite, like the expanding balloon, the expansion rate will increase with distance. Using our two galaxies we can then calculate the 'gradient' of increased expansion with relative distance. This in no way demonstrates 'acceleration' any more than it does with the inflating balloon.
If the dark energy field of space itself is also expanding, and the speed of light remains constant, the additional red shift element due to this must be added. Again, the longer light travels through the field the greater the red shift. It's nothing to do with 'tired light' as I propose energy wave information can only logically be propogated at a constant rate over that time/space using energy from the the medium itself.
This has a good number of other implications which it seems could address some of our remaining key paradoxes. Or, to paraphrase Einstein, perhaps I'm going mad. Is it me or them?
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Peter Jackson wrote on Jun. 18, 2009 @ 19:40 GMT
Pressed the button too early. Forget the 'twice as red shifted' bit! Just'more red shifted' will do fine.
And some among you will recognise the similarities with the luminiferous ether. Much more to follow, if anyone's the slightest bit interested!
PJ
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amrit wrote on Jul. 2, 2009 @ 08:43 GMT
I see inflation as a process of transformation of space energy into energy of matter. In the universe energy cannot be created and not destroyed; universe is a system in a permanent dynamic equilibrium.
http://www.chronos.msu.ru/discussions/sorli_dyna
mic.html
yours amrit
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Georgina Parry wrote on Aug. 5, 2009 @ 11:08 GMT
William Orem said "An infinite past just seems wrong, but is it?"
Yes.
What is changing is energy and position of matter in the 4 dimensional spatio-energetic continuum.Potential energy is being changed into mass energy and kinetic energy. Matter is coming together as it moves along the 4th spatio-energetic dimension.Structures are forming. Potential energy is continually being transformed, giving a direction of change that has been called the "arrow of time".
Time is not a parameter of the universe itself. The universe exists without time, not eternally. There is an origin in 4D space and end state in 4D space. Not a beginning and end in time.The end state of the universe is the origin of its successor.The mind demands that time is applied to the concept of universe because that is how the mind processes information to build its subjective reality.
There is no past as a physical reality. Only space. There can be no time travel, so there is no paradox there.The energy changes that happened when the matter of our universe was at a particular 4th dimensional position in the spatio-energetic continuum have no continued existence, as the position of the matter of the universe moves afore wards towards the centre of the hypersphere.
William, I think the Perimeter Institute would actually like more academic hoop jumpers to sit in an armchair and think for them. I hear that concerts and pleasant non academic environment is provided to aid inspiration.
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amrit wrote on Nov. 23, 2009 @ 12:47 GMT
Yes Georgina, universe has no past and no beginning. Universe is a system in a permanent dynamic equilbrium. Change of density of quantum space generates expansion and contraction of the universe.
You can read more on my article on file attached.
yours amrit
attachments:
Timeless_Quantum_Universe_in_Dynamic_Equiilibrium_FQXI.pdf
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M.SAI VARUN REDDY wrote on Feb. 19, 2010 @ 03:21 GMT
sir,i am a student studying in class 9 in India having a passion for physics.in this message i want to send one of my theories supporting the inflationary big bang.frankly speaking i have other theories of my own but cannot convey to you due to lack of time. when i read brief history of time you have mentioned that if there exists a super string theory and a multi dimensional space then some amazing gravitational phenomenon will occur. also for example you have given that if there are any 2 bodies in a five dimensional space and if one body is brought nearer to another body by 2 units, then the gravitational force between those two bodies will increase by 16 times. similarly if there was a six dimensional space then the force between those two bodies must increase by 32 times and so on. but according to me if we go backwards then we can notice that in two dimensional space the force between those two bodies will increase by a mere 2 times , similarly in one dimensional space the force between the two bodies will not depend on the distance between the bodies. now comes the major part of my theory IF THERE WAS A ZERO DIMENSIONAL SPACE THEN THE FORCE BETWEEN THOSE 2 BODIES WILL DECREASE BY TWO TIMES CAUSING THEM TO REPEL. therefore we can say that a zero dimensional space shows inflationary gravitational effects and that our universe must have taken birth from a zero dimensional space or a point. but if we are speaking regarding a whole universe then a zero dimensional space must not have been enough but rather THERE MUST EXIST A NEGATIVE DIMENSIONAL SPACE WHICH BROUGHT THE REPELLING GRAVITATIONAL FORCE TO EXTREMES. therefrom this theory i want to give a new definition that A SINGULARITY IS A ZERO OR A NEGATIVE DIMENSIONAL SPACE WHICH SHOWS INFLATIONARY GRAVITATIONAL EFFECTS. i would like to conclude my theory but if you notice carefully then the UNIVERSAL GRAVITATIONAL CONSTANT IS NOT A CONSTANT BUT RATHER INCREASES WITH DECREASING NUMBER OF DIMENSIONS AND ALSO MY THEORY LINKS WITH YOUR BLACK HOLE RADIATIONS CONSIDERING THAT THE SINGULARITY IN A BLACK HOLE IS THAT OF A ZERO OR ANY OTHER NEGATIVE DIMENSIONAL SPACE VERY MORE THAN OUR BIG BANG SINGULARITY. do send your valuable replies . MY NAME IS M.SAI VARUN REDDY. THANKING YOU
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Florin Moldoveanu replied on Feb. 23, 2010 @ 04:40 GMT
Dear Sai,
It is wonderful that you have a passion for physics and that you like to speculate about it. I would strongly encourage you to keep learning physics and math. I do not want to discourage you by criticizing your speculation, but as you learn more and more, your speculations will become better and better; the key is to never forget to speculate and dream big. However, speculation alone is never enough. Hard work is required in learning what other people did before you.
Good luck in learning physics.
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M.SAI VARUN REDDY replied on Feb. 23, 2010 @ 14:55 GMT
thanks sir/madam for your valuable advice.but i request you to tell me what was wrong in my speculation so that in future i may take care of my mistakes. also do check one of my other speculation in the topic DR. EDT'S THEORY given in the major topic HIGH ENERGY PHYSICS which is about the speed of light. do send your replies again .
M.SAI VARUN REDDY
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Ilja Schmelzer replied on Sep. 29, 2011 @ 21:17 GMT
Sorry, but your speculation is of the "not even wrong" type. A physical theory, to be taken seriously, need some equations, which have to be sufficient to explain the things we observe around us, and in a quite mathematical, quantitative way.
By the way, don't use popular introductions into string theory or other theories as an example what you have to do in fundamental physics. There are professional papers behind such popular introductions, full of mathematics, and if you want to develop a serious theory, you have to present similar professional papers. That's hard, but such is life.
By the way, using UPPERCASE in such postings is considered to be bad style ("crying").
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Tim wrote on Feb. 20, 2010 @ 19:07 GMT
I speculate that the universe is analogous to one of the virtual particle pairs thought to appear in empty space (the quantum froth); where particle pairs appear (an alpha point), then mutually annihilate (an omega point). At a larger scale, perhaps our (and other) universe(s) are simply members of virtual particle pairs (at a far vaster scale). A universe appears as a quantum fluctuation along with its "anti" universe: both evolve (perhaps by accelerated expansion) until they mutually coalesce and annihilate retuning the vacuum to the zero state from which it began.
I envision a sort of fractal existence in which the quantum froth of our universe mirrors identical "froths" at vastly different scales perhaps extending in both "directions" of which we are aware of only the microscopic (quantum) and (for one pair member) the universal. Time then is a property reflecting the evolution of each "particle universe" independently. It may be interesting to investigate to what extent the quantum physics of virtual pair production could be applied on a universal scale.
As an aside, could the dark sector be related to the "anti" member of our "particle universe pair"?
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Wilton Alano wrote on Jul. 4, 2010 @ 20:02 GMT
Dear Sirs,
From the nothing, nothing can emerge or arise. So, it's not intelligent thinking that from a past time where supposedly nothing existed, anything like our universe has come to light.
So, the idea of a starting of matter existence is a fake idea, without any basement. There are no reason to think that the intrinsic and perpetual nature of the cosmic fabric is not exactly what is shown.
Simple like that: The nature of the cosmos is what you see: energized matter. There has never been any past time when the "nothing" existed, so the past is really infinite.
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Wolf Krebs wrote on Jul. 24, 2010 @ 03:19 GMT
THE ILLUSION OF TIME
In an essay in Scientific American (Sci.Am. 302,6; p 59-65; 2010) Craig Callender reports that some theoretical physicists suggest that time does not exist. Their conclusion comes from quantum mechanical considerations. I am presenting some observations of our macroscopic world that lead to the same suggestion.
The three domains of time are future, present and...
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THE ILLUSION OF TIME
In an essay in Scientific American (Sci.Am. 302,6; p 59-65; 2010) Craig Callender reports that some theoretical physicists suggest that time does not exist. Their conclusion comes from quantum mechanical considerations. I am presenting some observations of our macroscopic world that lead to the same suggestion.
The three domains of time are future, present and past. The future contains all events that do not yet exist, the present contains the events that exist, and the past the ones that do not exist anymore.
It seems obvious that as I am writing these words I am in the present. However, this moment will be in the past and not exist anymore, when you will read what I am writing now.
When we shake hands we feel our hands touch. The moment, we feel each others hand, the touching is already in the past. Our sensory receptors need time to react, our nerves need time to send a signal to our brains. Our brains need time to process the information, and time is needed to informing the seats of our self-awareness that a touching is happening. Well, our system is slow. However, if we could register an event within a fraction of a picosecond, even then this event would be in the past when we witness its existence. That means everything we do, feel, see, or hear is already in the past and has ceased to exist.
As all events that we can witness are already in the past when we become aware of them, the time that we experience is in the past also. Thus, time is a dimension of the imagined world of the past. It is an illusion.
Time measures the distance that separates a past event from the present. In our imagination, we can go back to the time of ancient Rome, and than we can move forward again to the discovery of the Americas. We can let time run forward or backward, and we can define an arrow of time in our virtual world of the past.
We do not know if there is some equivalent in the present to what we call time. If there is, it cannot have duration.
Events are real only as long as they are anchored in the present. As soon as the connection to the present is lost an event ceases to exist. Time comes into its virtual existence the moment an event becomes detached from the present.
As long as we live, we are connected to the present. However, everything we experience is already in the past.
When we die we stop to exist. We lose our connection to the present. Our body may exist a little longer while connected to the present, however, eventually, it also will cease to exist until in the end there are only atoms and finally sub-atomic particles as traces of our former existence.
Everything that changes moves from the reality of the present into the illusion of the past. The changed state remains in the present and the old state, which does not exist anymore, is in the past.
The future is what we think might happen or what we predict to become reality. Our predictions are based on our experience and knowledge of our world of the past. As the past, the future is not real. We are imagining the future as a mirror image of our world of the past.
To become real a future event must become part of the present first. That is the reason why we cannot “remember” the future. We can only remember events that once had been real. In other words we only can remember what had been in the present.
As the time we experience does not exist in the present, we cannot assume time to be running continuously from the past into the future. It rather seems as if the present generates time as the fourth dimension of our virtual world of the past.
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amrit replied on Sep. 6, 2010 @ 13:02 GMT
Time exist - time is numerical order of material change trat run in space. We measure them with clocks....see more on file attached.
yours amrit
attachments:
2_BLOCK_UNIVERSE.pdf
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P McDonald wrote on Aug. 29, 2010 @ 13:47 GMT
TIME
I am as one would rightly have deduced after reading this post...just a voice in the wilderness.
My theory........
Time is the effect of a movement that spins back on itself while still moving in the same original direction.
The backward spin on a ball thrown forward, has a ball thrown with the same energy as one without a spin, yet the ball takes longer to get to its destination. The spin slows time and in the case of a googly cricket bowl...distorts distance/ time.
There is also a case for the shape of 'time' and the universe. The effect of movement dictates the shape of the Universe and all the laws within it.
Analogy........
The smoke ring a cigarette smoker can blow. The forward movement of the smoke ring is countered by the backward spin of the ring across its width (which is composed of the same forward movement) yet the smoke ring still moves forward because it is all the same force. I propose the ring and its contents are 3 dimensional time and space and the original forward movement one dimensional time, while everything else is a void. The forward motion gives rise to the expanding universe, because as the forward motion continues, the circumference of the ring gets larger. The ring has to accommodate the matter/mass so its width shrinks, until finally all movement stops and the mass/matter disappears.
These opposing movements within the same movement generate a continuum.
I often think that when a bullet is fired, time folds back on its future self to allow the bullet to hit its future target.
I hope this is not too much of a nonsense.
Thank you for your time.
attachments:
time_mcdonald_28.8.jpg
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castel wrote on Sep. 5, 2010 @ 19:26 GMT
If we admit the idea that duration in time and motion (mass-energy) in space do not interact with duration and motion being simply concurrent realities, then the idea of an infinite past and future time would be easy.
Stephen Hawking has recently forwarded the idea of "spontaneous creation" owing to the existence of gravity. The idea of "spontaneous creation because of gravity" essentially proposes that gravitational masses always existed because otherwise gravity will not be an occurrence and then spontaneous creation will not occur at all. This by extension poses the idea of an infinite past and future time.
The idea of "creation because of gravity" in Hawking's latest makes me wonder if he or his peers read my paper of a few years ago.
Sometime ago I've also emailed A. Aguirre and M. Tegmark an ecopy of
Kinematic Relativity and Continuous Mass-Formation in an Accelerating Universe, although I gathered from Anthony's response that he has not read it and did not intend to read it.
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castel wrote on Sep. 5, 2010 @ 19:45 GMT
"An infinite past just seems wrong -- literally inconceivable -- like words being put together in a meaningless way. But is it?"
I've been working on an idea of gravitation from the viewpoint of "kinematic relativity" that suggests that gavity and all other forces (kinematic tendencies) would not be possible without an infinitely hierarchical cosmos.
But the work is on hold for lack of funding and hence time - I need to use my time to work for a living. I tried to get an FQXi grant, but although FQXi is really generous, my proposal just couldn't cut it.
I'm posting here because I am hoping somebody else is working on the same ideas that I am working on. I'm trying to discover who does.
It would be great if you people could answer with some relevant comments.
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castel wrote on Sep. 5, 2010 @ 20:39 GMT
Regarding the idea of entropy discussed above by Anthony...
The assumption is of course that the second law of thermodynamics is valid application for the universe. The idea predicts an entropic death of the universe. But there is an opposed idea to the second law - the idea of gravitation.
It is clear that the underlying idea of the second law is radiation (i.e., attenuation). On the other hand, the underlying idea of gravity is gravitation/condensation/concentration (i.e., densification).
So, which of the two is the correct idea as regards the universe?
Hawking is saying now - "spontaneous creation" because of gravity.
I've been saying for many years now - "cosmic continuous mass formation" because of the gravitational 'tensor' acceleration. I have the genesis formula presented at my
website.
The idea of "a universe heading toward an entropic demise" is no longer valid.
Only a universe with the continuous cosmic mass formation process owing to gravity, with the created masses undergoing cosmic fission processes (such as super novae, etc.), can explain the "large structures." The large structures now observed by astronomers could not have formed in the time span forwarded in the big bang theory.
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Anonymous wrote on Sep. 23, 2010 @ 07:07 GMT
It is difficult for me to address time as an isolated subject. I must first outline a skeleton of
my own cosmological model. The cosmic foam of our universe is the ether foam of a super-universe, and the ether foam of our universe is the cosmic foam of a sub-universe. The median size bubble in our cosmic foam is roughly 10^24 meter across; the median size bubble in our ether foam is roughly 10^-35 m across. Space can be measured in ether-foam bubbles; a cubic meter is roughly 10^105 bubbles, and that number remains constant as our space expands. The expansion of our space stretches the bubble walls of our cosmic foam, causing them to pop. The same thing occurs in the sub-universe, causing its cosmic foam bubble walls to pop.
Space expands by increasing the number of ether-foam bubbles. When a wall separating two bubbles pops, two bubbles become one. That is a reduction in the number of bubbles. For the number of bubbles to increase, bubble walls must un-pop; a new wall must form across the middle of a bubble, dividing it in two. So when a cosmic-foam bubble in the sub-universe pops, one of our ether-foam bubbles must un-pop. In other words, the arrow of time reverses from one universe to the next. The expansion of space aims the arrow of time.
Turning the clock backward, we can imagine our space shrinking. This reduces the scale factor between the cosmic foam and the ether foam. Today, the factor is about 10^59 to 1. Suppose we run the clock back to a time when the scale factor was unity; we reach a time when our cosmic foam existed at the same scale as our ether foam. That could be adopted as a convenient marker for the beginning of time as we know it. Before that, the roles of cosmic foam and ether foam are reversed; the super-universe and sub-universe swap roles.
I am not saying that we CAN turn the clock back that far with any degree of confidence in what might have existed back then. If seems likely that our cosmic foam may have undergone numerous phase shifts since the beginning of time as we know it. Our cosmic foam, today, consists of bubbles surrounded by walls of galaxies. So what was it before galaxies came into existence? Did it have a foamy texture even then? I doubt if we can ever know that. Nevertheless, it does make sense to me to postulate a beginning of time as we know it, and that sets an arbitrary but finite limit to the age of our universe.
Our universe is an insignificant subset of an infinitely greater fractal universe. That greater universe exists outside of time because time runs both forward and backward within it. Time exists within the greater universe, but the greater universe has no beginning or end.
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Philip Janes replied on Sep. 23, 2010 @ 07:10 GMT
That previous thread is mine. I thought I was still logged in.
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amrit wrote on Oct. 12, 2010 @ 13:41 GMT
past exist only as a numerical order.............
attachments:
Time_measured_with_Clocks_12.10..pdf
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Georgina Parry wrote on Nov. 3, 2010 @ 22:49 GMT
Passage of time is human perception. It is also how we order and make sense of numerous, many dimensional spatial changes that are occurring continuously. The experience comes from within the organism and is in part due to circadian rhythm controlled by the pituitary gland in response to light levels and in part interpretation of the sequence of spatial change experienced by that organism. Ageing...
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Passage of time is human perception. It is also how we order and make sense of numerous, many dimensional spatial changes that are occurring continuously. The experience comes from within the organism and is in part due to circadian rhythm controlled by the pituitary gland in response to light levels and in part interpretation of the sequence of spatial change experienced by that organism. Ageing is cumulative detrimental changes in the spatial configuration of the material components of the body including damage to the mitochondria the "energy production" units of the cells.
The tick of a clock gives a scale within 3D space that can be used to measure other spatial change. It is a man made construction that works together with human perception to give time a -seemingly- non spatial existence in the world. With a clock we can now see time passing second by second rather than having to rely on the astronomical changes, change in the earth relative to the sun, position of stars or moon in the sky etc. This takes us away from what time is to the universe.
There are changes with in 3D space that we can observe and measure. Distance A to B for example. Taking the 3 dimensions to be the only spatial dimensions that exist A to B is a fixed and unchanging. The position of A and the position of B do not change. The only other change that is occurring according to this viewpoint is change in time. However if distance A to B is measured on the earth's surface, then A to B is changing spatial position because of the earth's rotation about its axis, the orbit of the earth around the sun, procession of the solar system with in the galaxy and so on to bigger scales of change of position with in the material object universe. The cumulative effect of change at many scales, mostly circular motion is a change in -spatial- position. The object has not just moved A to B it has moved A to B' at the new universal position. When the object arrives at B' it is not in the same spatial position as B was, when the object left A. Some say prove it. Well do the celestial bodies of the universe move relative to each other or are they static? If it is assumed that they are moving as our observations show, then the passage of time for an object is a change in its absolute spatial position in the (object) universe. Nothing moves A to B even if we see and measure it doing so. It is only possible for that to be so if the whole universe is static. The 4th dimensional change is a universal spatial change that is generally unobserved and so is unaccounted for, except as passage of time. That is to say relative local spatial change within a particular frame of reference(3D vector) against overall universal change, encompassing changes over many many scales, planetary , solar system , galactic, galaxy cluster, object universal (scalar spatial change).
Then there is the question of where this dimension of spatial change can possibly exist if all of space is defined by the 3 spatial dimensions.There is only one place for it to be. Running from the exterior to the interior of every mass. Movement along this "scalar" spatial dimension is then able to account for gravity. The object does not move into itself with in a single 3D space but from one 3D space to the next in that orientation. The 4th dimension in the electromagnetic equations of maxwell become the same scalar spatial orientation.
It is the ordering of the change that brings in time. However only that which exists in atemporal now actually materially exists. If one considers that which did exist but no longer exists one has invented the past. Which has no physical existence in atemporal now only in the mind or in the calculation or as an image. If one predicts what will exist then one has created a hypothetical future. Which has no existence in atemporal now only in the mind or the calculation. The experienced present is a patchwork of time delayed data unique to each observer position.It is not the same as the existential reality of the material universe at atemporal now.Past, present and future belong to the image universe. Image and object are not the same thing!!!
Along the 4th dimension of the material object universe there is absolute space that has been passed through, is now occupied, and which will be passed through. Of course the spatial position an object occupied and other objects occupied prior to current atemporal now effects its current change. It is not existential past effecting the present but former objective now (the spatial arrangement and relative positions of all components of the material universe) universe having already influenced current objective now. Progression is from one universal configuration to the next, atemporal now to atemporal now. Atemporal now may seem to be in the future as it exists ahead of delayed transmission and interpretation of any data that can be formed into perception of that which exists.Can things exist before we are aware of them? Certainly. Research has shown that the fear response is detectable in humans before conscious awareness of any threatening stimulus. Immediate preparation of the organism for rapid response gives a survival advantage. The material organism can thus react before the conscious observer function of the organism has awareness of another material configuration presenting a threat. The conscious observer is thus always observing the past, a patchwork image of former material reality.
There is not a material copy of that which has already happened and the future is not already written and in material existence. There is no going back to the past, only back to space that has been passed through. There is no traveling to the future, only to space that has not yet been passed through. Aft space and afore space.It would require billions of universes worth of matter and energy for all of those temporal copy universes to exist. They are fantasy realms imo nothing more. I do not assume my reflection in the mirror to be a real independently existing person, even though I see it clearly.It is an image, a trick of the light.
The image of past events that are seen are just that- images created from the delayed transmission of photons. The material object universe is not the same as the image universe. The material object universe can be described by 4 dimensions, 3 vector spatial one scalar spatial. The image universe can be described by 4 dimensions. 3 vector spatial and one time. The image universe THE UNIVERSE is an image!!! The material object universe that we can not observe is the material object. How can it be said to exist if it can not be observed? There has to be an object to create an image. We could not see the image that we see now if there had not been an object universe. We could not see the 8 minute delayed image of the sun if there was not an object sun existing in atemporal Now. Einstein's work has to do with the -appearance of things- to an observer. Newtons work is to do with the existential matter of the universe. Perhaps too much importance has been given to the appearance of things and erroneous interpretations of the meaning of observation have been made.
At any distance at all from the observer there is time delay in information transfer and the image is non contemporaneous with the observer. The greater the distance the greater the discrepancy. We therefore operate within the image our minds create from a patchwork of time distorted information. That is not the material object reality. That is important.
Considering an eternal material universe one must also consider entropy. By chance, under the influence of forces and organic organization particles come to positions that are more stable than a change in that position and so structure and organization occur. However though matter can come together into structures these too can be broken down. Bodies decay, rocks erode, stars explode.On a universal scale entropy and organization are both ongoing processes.A dynamic equilibrium.I consider it more likely that there is continuous recycling of the universe rather than cataclysmic creation and destruction events of the entire universe simultaneously. The big bang scenario has arisen from the assumption of an expanding universe which is in turn based upon interpretation of red shift data, which may be incorrect. As it takes into account only 3 spatial dimensions of change.
Like a river deposits silt and erodes silt, carving out meanders. The sea deposits sand to build beaches, but also erodes beaches and cliffs.The universe builds stars, planets and lifeforms but also disintegrates stars, planets and lifeforms. Energy is stored in structures and energy is released. Matter is stored in structures and is released to build new structures. Energy is never destroyed. It is eternal if one thinks in terms of time.It is merely atemporal comprising only ongoing spatial change as in material reality everything exists only in space, at an ever changing spatial position. The time dimension is the dimension of the fantasy realms, past , present and future created by light images. The scalar spatial dimension is the dimension of absolute change of the material object universe. Do physical processes occur within the image of the universe or within the material object universe? I say within the object universe.
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Georgina Parry wrote on Nov. 4, 2010 @ 20:06 GMT
Hi William Orem,
I read the abstract of your linked -work-. Would have read more if easily accessible and free. The singularity that provides the whole universe from nothing is such a problematic idea for me that a sensible theory that avoids such a structure seems worthwhile and interesting. My main problem with your outline is that you allow local time reversal. What exactly does this...
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Hi William Orem,
I read the abstract of your linked -work-. Would have read more if easily accessible and free. The singularity that provides the whole universe from nothing is such a problematic idea for me that a sensible theory that avoids such a structure seems worthwhile and interesting. My main problem with your outline is that you allow local time reversal. What exactly does this mean to you? Is it just spatial processes running in the opposite direction or is it an exact reversed replay of events?
Many processes can run in either direction. Sand can be deposited sand can be eroded. Groups of organisms come together, groups of organisms disperse. Chemicals can combine and chemicals can be broken apart.This all occurs within what we regard as constant direction of the arrow of time. The processes may change direction but the hands of the clock continue to move in the same direction as does the progression of the sun in the sky.
What constitutes time in those local regions where time reversal occurs?Is it what is happening or is it what it is compared to? What determines time there, the local clock, the outside reference frame clock of an outside observer?, the direction of absolute movement?
If time is reversed rather than just overall processes, gravity also runs backwards and becomes anti gravity as do all forces, pushes pull, pulls push. Atomic spins are reversed, magnetic poles that attracted now repel. How is the reversal of all physics accomplished? Is it just wild speculation or is there some compelling reason to make that assumption?. As you can tell I am very skeptical about this possibility. As an "armchair philosopher" I see no reason to assume that it happens. Though I would be very interested to hear your explanation of why it is good and works.
I think that all change in a material object universe is spatial and spatial change can take place in either direction, without effecting time. Time is an artificial measurement of change and allows perception of the the sequence of change, either using celestial changes or a clock of some kind. The sequence of spatial positions can repeat itself without time being repeated or be reversed without time reversal, such as the swing of a pendulum or any oscillation. At each oscillation the object has a new absolute position in the universe although occupying the same local space reference frame. That is it is within the bounds of an certain 3d space under consideration but due to the movements of the celestial bodies over many scales the cumulative effect is a change of position unaccounted for except as time. Only by reversing the movements of all of the celestial bodies and reversing the effects of all physical processes can time run backwards. It is nearly as preposterous as a singularity. Rule breaking.
I have not read the entirety of that work and therefore may have completely misunderstood. Please forgive me if that is the case.I expect that it is constructed to fit with space-time relativity etc. However that space-time model is based upon time delay ( perhaps I should say spatial sequence progression delay) distortion of the image formed from photon data. It tells us what will be observed (image ) not what is ( material reality). The space-time universe thus formed is not the material universe that exists in purely spatial simultaneous now,(not the present).
Your thoughts, explanations of reasoning etc would be much appreciated.
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Georgina Parry replied on Nov. 4, 2010 @ 20:59 GMT
William Orem,
Oops- just noticed that it was Anthony Aguirre, Steven Gratton's work that was being refereed to you for comment William not your own work. I would still be interested to know your own opinions on the question of actual time reversal outside of mathematical acceptability. What local time reversal actually means to you etc?
Hi Anthony aguirre,
So sorry for that mix up. I would like to address the previous post and the questions raised to you, as you put up the link to your work. Also have you moved on from this ( link in 2007) or is it still a reflection of your current thinking/ research ?
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Georgina Parry replied on Nov. 5, 2010 @ 22:33 GMT
Thinking some more about magnetism it doesn't properly reverse with time reversal. An object that was repelled will be attracted towards but will not stick to the now not quite attracting pole.
Time forwards. Imagining a magnet being dropped onto a repulsing pole of a stronger magnet. It would fall and then be repelled by the magnet. It might be displaced laterally away from the repulsing pole or turn so that attracting poles come together.During the repulsing phase the poles of the magnet do not touch in this imagined case.
Time is reversed. The smaller magnet is now repulsed by the formerly attracting pole if it had turned turned, so turning again or moves towards the formerly repulsing pole from its laterally displaced position. However it is not attracted so sticking to that pole. There is still a barrier to the poles coming together. Instead of the expected complete magnetic attraction it is overcome by anti-gravity and rises into the air. Isn't this a problem because this physics of magnetism doesn't seem to run properly backwards.Is this film running backwards type of time reversal the wrong way to be thinking about it?
There is also the problem of compounds and mixtures and structures that are more energetically stable in their current fixed form than as the ingredients or parts that they were made from. When time is reversed the value of energy would also seem to be reversed so now it is more energetically favorable for formerly stable objects to be undone back to ingredients and parts. Cold objects warm up spontaneously etc.
When time reversal is mentioned by physicists are they referring only to reversal of certain physical processes or all processes, physics, chemistry and biology. If it is reversal of only certain processes then it isn't time reversal its just a reverse reaction or process in forwards time. I understand that time reversal is mathematically allowable but am I failing to comprehend something that makes time reversal plausible and scientifically allowable? Are all physics rules and processes fully reversible? No it would seem.
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Philip Janes wrote on Nov. 27, 2010 @ 09:27 GMT
"Cosmic foam bubbles? Can they be measured, observed, investigated empirically in any way? What is the foam and where does it come from?"
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The Sloan Digital Sky Survey has mapped over half a million galaxies in 3D. Of course, there are more gaps than mapped regions. Our view is blocked by the disk of our own galaxy, and we can't see what lies beyond...
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"Cosmic foam bubbles? Can they be measured, observed, investigated empirically in any way? What is the foam and where does it come from?"
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The Sloan Digital Sky Survey has mapped over half a million galaxies in 3D. Of course, there are more gaps than mapped regions. Our view is blocked by the disk of our own galaxy, and we can't see what lies beyond other galaxies. The task of mapping all the visible galaxies may take decades.
I haven't actually seen the map in stereo vision, but those who have describe it as a giant bubble bath with walls of galaxies surrounding the voids. A void is the interior of a bubble. They believe dark matter completes the fabric of the bubble walls. This is what I am calling the cosmic foam.
We are just beginning to get statistical measurements, and it appears that the median bubble size in the cosmic foam is roughly 10^24 meters across. That being the case, a median-size bubble occupies roughly one millionth of the volume of the visible universe. (I am saying that, by definition, half the volume of a region is contained in bubbles larger than the median size.)
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"This looks like another one of those "math creating reality" claims instead of math reflecting testable reality."
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I am no mathematician. Numbers are a weakness of my model---not a strength. I use very rough approximations to provide a starting point from which others may someday refine the model. There is no insubstantial mathematical space in my model. Everything consists of waves in a hard, massive medium; and that medium consists of particles which are made of waves in a finer medium, and so on ad infinitum. There are no finite empty spaces to be bridged by insubstantial mathematical forces.
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"How do you know the sub-universe is running backwards if all of your tests run forward, which they must?"
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We cannot subject the sub-universe to tests; if we could it would be part of our universe. We can only infer that it must run backwards because of the way the model explains the expansion of space. If a cubic meter is 10^105 median-size bubbles, and that number is constant, then the expansion of space means the number of bubbles in a region of space must be increasing. When a foam fizzes, bubbles are popping, which decreases the number of bubbles. A bubble wall pops, and two bubbles merge into one. For the number of bubbles to increase, they must be un-popping. New bubble walls must be appearing, dividing one bubble into two. The second law of thermodynamics prevents bubbles from un-popping in forward time. (Note: I am assuming the number of bubbles per cubic meter is constant. More generally, it makes sense that the number of bubbles increases as space expands. In keeping with Occam's razor, I choose constant as the simplest explanation until such time as it leads to a contradiction.)
What makes the bubbles pop is the expansion of space in the sub-universe. The cosmic-foam bubbles of the sub-universe are stretched to their breaking point by expansion of sub-universe space. So that is a forward time cause of popping bubbles, from a sub-universe perspective. From our perspective, those same bubbles are un-popping. The cause of the popping is expansion of sub-universe space, which occurred before the popping from a sub-universe perspective. From our perspective, the cause is after the bubble un-pops. So the effect precedes the cause from our perspective.
Also, a popping bubble generates pressure waves which radiate outward. From our perspective, those pressure waves converge to a point where they seem to cause a new bubble wall to appear. The pressure waves are dark energy, and they are converted to new space.
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"Don't forget common sense just because it's not fashionable in the non-scientific quasi-physics world."
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I'm sure Einstein's heard many similar admonitions from his contemporaries. "Common sense" is a euphemism for thinking well inside the box. Paint by the numbers; don't cross the lines. If we never think outside the box, we'll be condemned to add new patches to the same old flawed concepts for ever.
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Philip Janes replied on Nov. 27, 2010 @ 09:36 GMT
Oops! That post, above belongs on a
different discussion. Too bad I can't delete it.
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Kronos II replied on Dec. 1, 2010 @ 05:47 GMT
"We cannot subject the sub-universe to tests."
Therefore, not a scientific inquiry. Just gibberish disguised in pseudo-scientific terms.
Also, I knew Albert Einstein. Albert Einstein was a friend of mine.
Philip: You are no Albert Einstein.
It appears you also think he is still alive by your present tense claim involving the great scientist who thought creatively inside the box known as the universe. Nice cliche on your part, though, regarding your faulty understanding of common sense. It supports your nonsense claims that just can't be tested or observed, yet you go on and on about certain actions causing this or that to pop, but then they reverse themselves and run backwards and effects precede causes.
Lots of stuff going on that can't be observed or tested. A superb example of mythological fantasy "pseudo-physics."
Thanks for the ride, though. I actually enjoyed reading your dazzling illusions.
KII
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Wilton Alano wrote on Mar. 12, 2011 @ 15:44 GMT
Hi,
Once Nature has never made anything unique in gender(There no just ONE galaxy, ONE sun, ONE planet or sand grain, but large number of them)and can just mass-produce anything; and once we humans have been wrong every time we thought we had found "the entire"; very great chances are that we are also wrong thinking our local(backyard) universe is - this time - the entire stuff.
Great chances are too that we can never discover too much beyond our backyard-universe, due to our littleness.
Personally, I'm convinced that the Cosmos is structured with infinite 'classes of dimensions'(like our) infinitely and fractaly nested.
In other words, totally infinite, as much in time as in space; despite the horror the term "infinite" cause in large amount of scientists.
Cheers,
Wilton
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gf replied on Jul. 9, 2011 @ 20:49 GMT
Yes the past would haveto be infinite or else we wouldn't have an infinite future which we must since 1. we cannot prove its finite and 2. we are not philosophically predestined for anything other than to exist in the moment
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israel socratus wrote on Nov. 15, 2011 @ 05:48 GMT
What is Infinity?
Does Infinity have an Absolute Reference Frame?
Does an Infinity Absolute Reference Frame have physical parameters?
I think the Vacuum T=0K gives answer to this questions.
=.
Israel Sadovnik Socratus
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Sridattadev wrote on Dec. 16, 2011 @ 18:54 GMT
Dear All,
who am I? I am here and now, I is forever.
Love,
Sridattadev.
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Louis Brassard wrote on May. 24, 2012 @ 03:51 GMT
The Universe is all that exists and by definition it includes everything. It even include the laws of Nature. Assuming that the Universe has an origin is like assuming that it comes from nothing. The only solution is to assume that the Universe has always existed.
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James Putnam replied on Jun. 1, 2012 @ 17:40 GMT
Hi Louis,
Welcome to FQXi.org. Are you thinking of enterring the essay contest?
James
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James Putnam replied on Jun. 7, 2012 @ 17:54 GMT
Louis Brassard,
I hope you consider enterring the essay contest.
James
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Louis Brassard replied on Jun. 18, 2012 @ 06:01 GMT
Hi James,
Yes I am considering to enter.
- Louiw
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Paul Reed replied on Jun. 18, 2012 @ 06:38 GMT
Louis
In which case you need to assume that you can never know where the “universe” came from or how long it has existed. Such considerations are irrelevant because they are metaphysical. We can only know about reality, as it is manifested to us (or all organisms). That is, there comes a ‘boundary point’, and that is not associated with practical issues about our ability to effect direct experience (we can hypothesise on the basis of such) but in respect of that which is never knowable (ie it is not of our existence/reality and therefore not even potentially experienceable). James had a phrase for this, something to the effect that ‘one needs to allow for one miracle’.
So, all we can know is that there is a present, ie a physically existent state as at any given point in time, and that that ceases as it is superceded by another physically existent state, which occurs because there is some inherent property which is causing alteration in the existent state. The ‘past’ has no form of existence, except as represented in physically existent phenomena which organisms can sense.
Paul
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James Putnam replied on Jun. 18, 2012 @ 12:33 GMT
Louis,
I hope you do. You have very interesting ideas along with the expertise to present them in a professional manner.
James
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James A Putnam replied on Jun. 18, 2012 @ 13:44 GMT
"... That is, there comes a ‘boundary point’, and that is not associated with practical issues about our ability to effect direct experience (we can hypothesise on the basis of such) but in respect of that which is never knowable (ie it is not of our existence/reality and therefore not even potentially experienceable). James had a phrase for this, something to the effect that ‘one needs to allow for one miracle’. ..."
Paul has no understanding of what I say. My words have no connection to what he writes.
James
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Paul Reed replied on Jun. 19, 2012 @ 07:40 GMT
James
Given the way other exchanges have gone, I cannot be bothered to trace your original comment. Edwin responded and agreed, Georgina had problems. I agreed with it. The simple fact is that our knowledge (whether based on direct experience or hypothecated therefrom) must ultimately hit a 'brick wall'. We cannot know what it is existentially impossible for us to know, but, logically, may exist. There comes a point where we just have to accept a 'full stop', put the other way around 'a miracle'. We have a reality, as is, ultimately, how, why, etc is unknowable, we just have to accept it, as is, and explain it, as is.
Paul
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James Putnam replied on Jun. 19, 2012 @ 12:40 GMT
Paul,
This is what you said:
"... That is, there comes a ‘boundary point’, and that is not associated with practical issues about our ability to effect direct experience (we can hypothesise on the basis of such) but in respect of that which is never knowable (ie it is not of our existence/reality and therefore not even potentially experienceable). James had a phrase for this, something to the effect that ‘one needs to allow for one miracle’. ..."
I have never said this nor do I agree with it. My point was that there is at least one 'given' for anyone's explanation of the universe but that there should be no more than that one. No additonal free-bee add-hoc inventions of the mind that continue to pop up out of a necessity generated by both early and ongoing errors. That one first 'given' is experienced by us.
Also it was part of a message that included your repeated unscientific beliefs. I don't want Louis or anyone else to think that I might think that your ideas make sense. You are certainly as welcome as anyone to express your opinions, without my retorts, as long as you do not associate me or my name with them. I understand that this has probably been a waste of my time writing this message. I expect that you will feel compelled to teach me again by repeating your errors. That effort would be a waste of your time. Please teach others.
James
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Paul Reed replied on Jun. 20, 2012 @ 05:19 GMT
James
And what is the difference between "that there is at least one 'given' for anyone's explanation of the universe" and stating that 'we can only know so much' or 'we cannot know what is not of our existence' or any other such phrase?
If you 'don't want anyone else to think that my ideas make sense', they would probably be more inclined to accept this assertion if you backed it up with evidential argument. But, as is the case with our latest exchange, you never do. Or, at the minimum you put up some comments, to which I respond, then the exchange ceases.
Paul
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Ferruccio Sorrentino wrote on Jun. 1, 2012 @ 15:46 GMT
I suggest that the black holes are the Universal Banks of the Information in the cycling Universe. The english version of my article is quiet old, about 4 years; afterwards I've bettre expressed the same concepts but only in Italian language. If intereste contact me at the e-mail gr.olograficoflegreo@libero.it, thank you.
attachments:
italias_black_holes.doc
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Martin wrote on Feb. 2, 2013 @ 22:28 GMT
Greetings folks, I see that I have come late to this discussion, but I might have a little something to contribute. I happen to have made a semi-thorough review of the philosophic literature on this topic. This is in connection with an upcoming paper. Here are some comments taken from that paper: First, theorists who have pointedly focused on the first-cause/infinite-regress issue have an almost...
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Greetings folks, I see that I have come late to this discussion, but I might have a little something to contribute. I happen to have made a semi-thorough review of the philosophic literature on this topic. This is in connection with an upcoming paper. Here are some comments taken from that paper: First, theorists who have pointedly focused on the first-cause/infinite-regress issue have an almost unanimous consensus in favor of the latter (Brown 1966; Grünbaum 1989; Reichenbach 2010; Smith 2008). Thus one of the more prominent theorists associated with this issue, the philosopher Adolf Grunbaum (1989) writes: [Quote]There is nothing at all in the concept of causality as such which warrants the claim that all causal chains must ultimately originate in the finite past from a cause that is itself uncaused. Causality as such is wholly compatible logically with physical causal chains which extend infinitely into the past [Endquote]. The law of causality, in fact, only requires that each condition and each change in a condition is the result of preceding conditions. The supposed requirement for a first cause is illusory. Indeed, any supposed first cause would be, by definition, an uncaused condition. This would be the violation of causality. Nor does quantum uncertainty imply some violation of causality. More likely, this applies to gaps in our knowledge; as every student of the subject quickly learns, this is a science that is still incompletely developed at a fundamental level. Free will would imply a violation of causality, but both philosophers and scientists now have an emerging consensus opposed to this notion (Libet et al. 1983; Libet 1985; Wegner 2004; OConnor 2011; Strawson 1986; Pereboom 2001; Smilansky 2002). Likewise, a sometimes-supposed state of primordial or alternative nothingness seems to some to require a first cause. However, this can be named, but is otherwise impossible to conceptualize, imagine or even discuss in an intelligible way. It appears to be an idea completely devoid of merit (Heath 1967). The source of the supposed requirement for a first cause is apparently our everyday experiences with conceptually circumscribed causal sequences (e.g., the appearance of organic molecules as marking the beginnings of life). In fact, each such first event is preceded by additional causal conditions (with the possible exception of conditions at the moment t = 0). Most importantly, it is possible to prove in a simple way the feasibility of an infinite causal regress. Consider, for example, a hypothetical proliferation of universes as in the fecund universes hypothesis of Lee Smolin. This might be physically impossible for some unknown reason, but it is entirely consistent with causal principles. To a descendant observer infinitely remote, we would represent an infinite past. For that observer, there would have been no beginning to the Universe. (I thought references might help a little here.)
Brown, Patterson. 1966. Infinite Causal Regression. The Philosophical Review 75 (4): 510–525.
Grünbaum, Adolf. 1989. The Pseudo-Problem of Creation in Physical Cosmology. Philosophy of Science 56 (3): 373–394.
Heath, P.L. 1967. Nothing. Ed. Paul Edwards. The Encyclopedia of Philosophy. Macmillan and Free Press.
Libet, Benjamin. 1985. Unconscious Cerebral Initiative and the Role of Conscious Will in Voluntary Action. Behavioral and Brain Sciences 8 (04): 529–539. doi:10.1017/S0140525X00044903.
Libet, Benjamin, Curtis A. Gleason, Elwood W. Wright, and Dennis K. Pearl. 1983. Time of Conscious Intention to Act in Relation to Onset of Cerebral Activity (readiness-Potential) the Unconscious Initiation of a Freely Voluntary Act. Brain 106 (3) (September 1): 623–642. doi:10.1093/brain/106.3.623.
OConnor, Timothy. 2011. Free Will. Ed. Edward N. Zalta. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy. http://plato.stanford.edu/archives/sum2011/entries/freewill/
.
Pereboom, Derk. 2001. Living Without Free Will. Cambridge: Cambridge University Press.
Reichenbach, Bruce. 2010. Cosmological Argument. Ed. Edward N. Zalta. The Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy. http://plato.stanford.edu/archives/win2010/entries/cosmologi
cal-argument/.
Smilansky, Saul. 2002. Free Will and Illusion. Oxford: Oxford University Press, USA.
Smith, Quentin. 2008. A Cosmological Argument for a Self-Caused Universe. Philpapers. http://philpapers.org/rec/SMIACA-2.
Strawson, Galen. 1986. Freedom and Belief. Oxford: Clarendon Press.
Wegner, Daniel M. 2004. Précis of The Illusion of Conscious Will. Behavioral and Brain Sciences 27 (05): 649–659. doi:10.1017/S0140525X04000159.
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Wilhelmus de Wilde wrote on Feb. 3, 2013 @ 16:05 GMT
The causal past is finite and
the non-causal past is infinite
Wilhelmus
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Olivier Fabian wrote on Feb. 17, 2013 @ 15:52 GMT
Infinity is a nice mathematical concept. But when applied to anything real, any kind of infinity is just too much.
Evidences gathered so far point to a recent beginning of our universe. But what about time? If we look at our time line back to the moment our universe started... and just a bit before that... and why not a very long time before... well, there is no reason to impose a limit toward the past.
That's assuming time is a "line", a one-dimension thing which could neither be blocked by walls at its extremities nor would makes sense to loop on itself.
We can eliminate quite a few paradoxes if we consider time as a pulsation of the real. What exists is the present, and it changes at every pulsation (sorry for sci-fi writers: time machines will never exist).
Before our Big-Bang appeared, there was nothing to pulse: time did not exist yet... and when the last particle will "evaporate", time will cease to exist.
You may still use time as a dimensional continous parameter to facilitate calculations as long as this does not introduce any paradoxe. But time, really, is neither a dimension nor is it continuous. It is only ticks occuring at indeterminate intervalles.
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John Merryman replied on Feb. 17, 2013 @ 17:40 GMT
Oliver,
I've been advocating that point for awhile and that the conceptual miscue is as we live lives of linear motion, we experience change sequentially, when the reality is distributed and non-linear. So rather then it be the present moving along an external vector, from past to future, it is the changing configuration, turning future into past. Not the earth traveling a vector from yesterday to tomorrow, but the rotation of the earth turning tomorrow into yesterday.
The problem with physics is that in its obsession with measurement, it treats time as a measure of duration, which only re-enforces the narrative vector. Yet duration is not external to the present, but is the state of the present between measurement events.
Keep in mind that "spacetime" is a correlation of measures of distance and duration. So if duration is only an effect of action and not foundational to it, then the premise of an expanding universe is based on faulty assumptions and redshift must be due to some other, ie. optical, effect.
It is all piled rather deep at this point, so watch where you step.
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Olivier Fabian replied on Feb. 18, 2013 @ 17:31 GMT
Usually, we perceive "duration" as a segment of time measured with a clock. Thus the idea of continuity, of very small (Planck scale?) segments aligned end-to-end.
What I am suggesting is that we should consider any duration as a discrete, finite number of "ticks" which impose the same number of updates of the universe.
The small segments are replaced by a gap of nothingness between two ticks. From the point of view of our clocks, these gaps could have a length of Planck duration, but since nothing happens to the sub-particules of our updated clock "waiting" for the updating of the rest of the universe, there is no way of quantifying the gaps themselves. We can only count the ticks.
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John Merryman replied on Feb. 19, 2013 @ 01:06 GMT
Olivier,
Keep in mind the "perceiving" and thus the measuring, is always in the "present." What you are measuring is actions within that present.
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Georgina Parry wrote on Feb. 19, 2013 @ 04:41 GMT
Anthony, William, All,
Another question that might be asked is what exactly is "the past"? Or to what exactly should the term "past" refer? Is it the complete history of all events that have occurred (recoded or not), that are not also the present? Is it the data recorded, in memory and/or physical records?; or does it also included data "recorded" within the electromagnetic variations of the universe that may not have been intercepted and interpreted?
I have differentiated these different kinds of phenomena to overcome the confusion surrounding the term "past": The complete history of all events that have occurred is the imagined complete sequence of iterations of the Object universe, up to but not including the youngest, most recent, iteration . Electromagnetic variation data, (potential sensory data), that has been formed but not yet received is called the "pre-written future", as it becomes present experience when the data is received. It is -many different potential images-, which of them is manifest depends upon the location and behaviour and type of observer.Although it is important to realise that this "pre-written future" may relate to events that occurred long ago. Only records, including memories, are categorised as "the past" within the RICP explanatory framework.They have already been present "Image reality" of a sentient being or device within our star system.
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Georgina Parry replied on Feb. 19, 2013 @ 04:47 GMT
A universe with an infinite past -history- (William's endless chain of causation) fits with the RICP explanatory framework but not a an infinite universe that has material existence spread over time, ie. a block universe. As the matter must be recycled into the youngest version of the Object universe. Otherwise there is the problem of more matter being continually produced as the universe's latest form is generated. (The "infinite number of tea cups" dilemma.)
The image of the universe produced from electromagnetic data is a fundamentally different aspect of "the universe". The data can persist and be intercepted and formed into an image even light years after the objects and events that are encoded existed in those forms and relationships. Though it seems the existence of data from which comprehensible images can be formed is -not infinite- as the event horizon is reached and older data giving clear images is unobtainable, which makes the image universe finite. (This way of thinking about the different aspects of "the universe " overcomes the temporal paradoxes inherent within Einstein's relativity.)
SUMMARY: Infinite history, ("infinite chain of causation"). Temporally finite (uni-temporal ie. not spread over time) material Object universe. Parts of it can not exist at different times. Finite temporal spread of space-time Image universe. (Produced from data that has persisted within the uni-temporal material universe.As it is a space-time image,different parts of the image may relate to arrangements and events that occurred at different times.
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Martin Gerard Channon replied on Feb. 26, 2013 @ 19:30 GMT
Oliver, you say that, [quote] Infinity is a nice mathematical concept. But when applied to anything real, any kind of infinity is just too much[end quote]. If by this you mean that an infinite (physical) causal regress is impossible, then this is an unsupported statement. Many others have developed this position in detail, and such detailed arguments have been considered and disproven by those who...
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Oliver, you say that, [quote] Infinity is a nice mathematical concept. But when applied to anything real, any kind of infinity is just too much[end quote]. If by this you mean that an infinite (physical) causal regress is impossible, then this is an unsupported statement. Many others have developed this position in detail, and such detailed arguments have been considered and disproven by those who have looked at the topic carefully. If you develop your argument and then look into the rebuttals in the literature, you will see that the arguments are apparently fallacious. All of the many arguments in favor of a first cause (i.e., the supposed impossibility of an infinite, physical regress) are apparently flawed.
You also say that, [quote] Evidences gathered so far point to a recent beginning of our universe [end quote]. This involves the unsupported notion that the expanding aggregate of galaxy clusters is the Universe. We don’t know that. This expanding aggregate is everything we know of, but that does not necessarily make it the Universe. Our ancestors made this same mistake over and over, and we are now doing it again.
Analysts (typically philosophers with sometimes a strong background in physics) now have an apparent or near consensus in favor of an infinite regress. (The notion of an infinite regress is apparently paradoxical, but the notion of a first cause is highly problematic.)
We have absolutely no knowledge as to conditions prior to about 10^-4 seconds. Implications: (1) Any supposition concerning the emergence of time and space at the moment t = 0 is speculation. (2) We have yet to identify the Universe. (If there were any preceding conditions, these are unknown, but must be included in the identification.) For the above reasons, we cannot support the statement, [quote] Before our Big-Bang appeared, there was nothing to pulse: time did not exist yet [end quote]. We simply do not know that.
Here is another thought. Established biological principles must be consistent with principles in chemistry. Likewise, the principles of chemistry must be consistent with those of physics. Philosophy (at least in this connection) is concerned with the analysis of purely conceptual or subjective aspects of reality. In as far as philosophy produces established principles, these must be consistent with science. Therefore, established principles of philosophy can at least provide constraints on scientific theories. One of these concerns theories about ultimate origins. Philosophers have now an emerging consensus in favor an infinite regress. If you are going to reject this, you should be prepared to show where they have made a mistake. You need to prove that a first cause is possible. You might be tempted to start by rejecting causality itself, but keep in mind that this has been tried, and it is an apparent failure.
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Sridattadev wrote on Feb. 28, 2013 @ 21:55 GMT
Dear All,
There is no space unless one chooses to measure and there is no time until one chooses to count, there is no spacetime besides one absolute self.
"Consciousness is the sphere of universal schwarzschild radius (ranging from zero to infinity) with a central cosmological constant of conscience (i)" - iSphere.
zero = i = infinityLove,
Sridattadev.
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