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FQXi Administrator Zeeya Merali wrote on Aug. 31, 2010 @ 15:43 GMT
Just a quick post to point you to the BBC’s coverage of FQXi large-grant-winner Gaurav Khanna’s work, using a Playstation supercomputer to test loop quantum cosmology, find out what happened before the big bang, and predict signs of black holes. (More details in Graeme Stemp-Morlock’s article: “
The Quantum PlayStation”.)
You can listen to the piece, broadcast on the BBC Worldservice’s Digital Planet,
here (Khanna comes in at about the 9 minute mark).
I’m highlighting it here because the host,
Gareth Mitchell, picked up on an interesting point: Khanna was able to string together 16 PS3 consoles to create a supercomputer because, until recently, the PS3 was an open platform, running LINUX, which could programmed for scientific tasks. Now, however, SONY have shut down this functionality––possibly because hackers managed to exploit it to run pirate games.
So, sadly, it won’t be so easy for others to follow Khanna’s example and create their own PS3 supercomputers in the future. The programme has a bit of a discussion about whether SONY should feel more obliged to help the progress of foundational physics research. The answer seemed to be, realistically, probably not. But I thought I would throw it out there for you.
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Gaurav Khanna wrote on Sep. 9, 2010 @ 12:03 GMT
Thanks for bringing this point up, Zeeya. It is an interesting point to think about.
Yes, certainly Sony or any other such corporation have no obligation to help scientific projects and efforts. The issue of whether they can take back a system feature that they originally offered is a separate one of course, and I understand they have been sued multiple times on that matter.
On the other hand, I wish that some of these corporations would realize and appreciate the potential that they have of making a huge impact on various aspects of humanity. With the PlayStation 3, I believe in the beginning Sony actually did get this and that is perhaps why they put the Linux option there in the first place (other competing game consoles like XBox and Wii have never done this). In addition, right since the beginning they offered the option of enrolling one's PS3 with Folding@Home (a Stanford volunteer computing project that is focussed on finding the causes of various serious diseases) and Sony R&D actually helped develop a very high-performing PS3 version of that software, that ultimately played a critical role in advancing Folding@Home into the petaflop/s regime. And then there was talk about bringing more such projects to the PS3 as well. My understanding is that these efforts were not made for any real commercial reason, except perhaps just PR.
But something changed along the way (perhaps the losses Sony's gaming division faced until recently? A change of upper level management?) and now they simply don't appear to have the same attitude anymore. Its very unfortunate.
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Kai Staats wrote on Oct. 1, 2010 @ 02:02 GMT
As I was heavily, directly involved with Sony in the midst of this transition, I cannot comment to deeply. However, I can state that from day-one there was internal conflict over the sales of the PS3 as a multi-purpose system.
Remember that initial PS3s were sold at a loss (or at least, that is what we are told) such that if a unit is used for Linux, there will not be any games sold. Even at a break-even go-to-market strategy, the real money is in the game licenses.
As such, selling PS3s to Linux users is seen by the powers-that-be in Tokyo as a loss of revenue not only in lost game sales, but in the cost of maintaining the Linux support.
From this point of view, it does make sense.
However, it is my opinion that Sony has missed the boat for many years on these matters, failing to promote the incredible power of a truly multi-functional system with capacity for playing music from CD and USB drives; watching hi-def movies; and even connecting to an external RAID box for massive storage (something we played with internal to Terra Soft).
As IBM dominates the Top500.org, often at a loss for the large-scale installations, their supercomputing ventures provide the best possible marketing.
Sony too could have played-up the role PS3s were playing in universities, DOE and DOD labs in realworld research, taking the incredible success to the world as a demonstration of where a supercomputing game box can go--far beyond the Wii or MS games boxes.
In the end it is sad, for one division of Sony was moving in one direction, supporting the work of individuals such as Gaurav; while the other was moving in the other. The later had more clout ... and won.
kai
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Zeeya wrote on Oct. 5, 2010 @ 19:48 GMT
Thanks for that information Kai.
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James Putnam wrote on Mar. 20, 2011 @ 02:32 GMT
Dear Whitworth,
You did not start a new thread. I want you to know that I am not evading you or your responses with regard to either me or thermodynamic entropy. I believe that my question must not have been clear to you. I also believed that you would come back and come on strong. I look forward to you reasserting your strong interest in my questions and answers. Perhaps I should mention that you did not answer my question. That is probably a combination of my not making my point clear and our different languages. I appreciate very much that you are speaking to me in English. Please consider re-establishing contact. I will reform my question until we both understand it. Thank you for participating here at fqxi.org. I chose a blog that should load quickly.
JamesPutnam
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James Putnam wrote on Mar. 30, 2011 @ 17:21 GMT
Physics is Fun,
Regarding Temperature: This example uses two Carnot engines operating simultaneously. One contains a mole of O2 and the other a mole of H2. They both operate between T-high = 400 degrees kelvin and T-low = 200 degrees kelvin. The operation of the engines begins at the beginning of the isothermal compression process. At that beginning point, they have identical temperatures, volumes and pressures. The pressure is one atmosphere. They will be compressed to 20 atmospheres.
As the compressions occur both gases are held at the same constant temperature. They also undergo simultaneous identical increases in pressure. The volumes are free to attain their values necessary for the processes to proceed under those restrictions. As the pressures increase, their products of pressure and volume vary. The O2 must be compressed more than the H2. When the pressures reach 20 atmospheres, the volume of H2 is approximately 6 percent greater than the volume of O2. More work was performed on the O2.
The next process is to continue the compression adiabatically while allowing temperature to vary. The temperatures increase to T-high. The gases are compressed to 40 atmospheres. Their temperatures and pressures are identical. Their volumes are also now identical.
It is clear that temperature is related to average kinetic molecular energy. It is not clear that temperature is a direct measure of average kinetic molecular energy. My explanation is that temperature is the rate of exchange of kinetic energy between the molcules. The reason that the correlation is so close between average kinetic energy and temperature is due to the requirement that Carnot engines operate under conditions of equilibrium. Temperature is measured under conditions of equilibrium. The energy being exchanged between molecules is their average kinetic energy.
I gave the above example in order to show that the velocity of and distance between the molecules affects the rate of exchange of their kinetic energies. The O2 must be compressed more in order to maintain the exchange of average kinetic energy per unit of time.
If you disagree or have corrections to offer, they are welcome. Correctness is the goal.
JamesPutnam
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James Putnam wrote on Apr. 1, 2011 @ 17:28 GMT
I have repeatedly made the charge that mass should not have been arbitrarily made into an indefinable property. I can't recall anyone showing an interest in following up on it. Perhaps it is viewed as one more piece of 'non-sensical rot'. I sent off an abstract recently where I proposed to present a paper explaining the meaning of entropy. A difficulty I face in giving explanations is that fundamental theory must first be made correct. So, it was necessary for me to point out that I would begin by showing how mass is expressible in terms of distance and time.
There were three reviewers. The paper has been just barely accepted by two of them. So, I have been invited to participate in the poster presentations at a conference. I can't justify the cost to me for doing that. Still I am going to submit the paper anyway.
Here is the point: There were three reviews:
The first tossed it without saying anything more than it didn't belong at this conference.
The second said this: "The author proposes a new understanding of the meaning of the concept of entropy that seems at first glance to be based upon a dimensional calculation. ...one is always suspicious of theories that appear to be based on dimensional considerations alone. It is quite possible that a more detailed analysis underlies the author's arguments but are not spelled out in a short abstract, which is why I am not simply rejecting the paper. Still the Boltzman formulation of the entropy concept, while not perfect, nevertheless has deep ties to many branches of physics and mathematics and statistics and a breadth of applicability which far outstrips its original connection to the old theory of Clausius. Some of the philosophically inclined attendess may find something of interest here though."
The third (I am leaving the grammer as the reviewer wrote it) said: "...and then there is the other argument that one can build up physics quantities from distance/time only, without using mass. ...nobody, as far as I know, has figured out a good way of removing mass from the basic quantities for metrology. That's why having a slow drift in the Paris kilogram prototype is such a big trouble. So, if the author really is able to express the kg as function of distance and time, that were a breakthrough (I would have expect something like that come out of something like Verlind's work). ..."
It would be better for a professional to make the arguments that I am putting forth. However, it is clear that the case must first be brought forward by a non-professional.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on Apr. 1, 2011 @ 18:39 GMT
James
Just to let you know you're not alone. What a nice blog! Sony need support right now.
I agree Mass is very poorly defined, and currently a morphing can of worms going round the Mad Hatters table making all sorts of mass to clear up! I certainly see motion as the heart of mass, but via inertia. One with just distance and time would be an interesting challenge to comprehend! - especially if it isn't moving. Mass is of course so central to nature that understanding it should make all else fall into place (even with some here screaming and kicking). I don't recall it from your essay.
I have to say I've never taken to entropy as a central condition, and it seems peripheral to the recycling thesis, so if you think it's important do let me know why.
Also, on the subject of mass, let me know your thoughts on the proposition that at all centres of mass (yes, that massy thing again!) are Lagrangian points.(points of gravitational equilibrium). At present we seem to have them where we want them but then have infinities instead where we fancy those! (black holes of all sizes). Now ..I have a good recycling analogy for infinities (did you read my viXra paper?) via toroid black holes, which only leaves Lagrangian Points at the centre of planets. It's all possible logical extension of the DFM. Georgina's potato earth link provides strong evidence it's correct! The varying gravity results are far more reasonable if the local pull is centred shallower than the earth's centre! That's also in a viXra paper. As usual I've only ever heard silence in response! Thoughts? http://www.esa.int/SPECIALS/GOCE/index.html
Best wishes
Peter
Peter
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James Putnam wrote on Apr. 2, 2011 @ 15:29 GMT
Peter,
I can't address all of that at this time. Some answers, such as what mass is, would even be counterproductive at this time. Corrections need to be made in an orderly manner beginning at the beginning. Our approaches are very different. We both say something similar such as the speed of light is a local constant. however, taking your train example, if we disregard visual effects and...
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Peter,
I can't address all of that at this time. Some answers, such as what mass is, would even be counterproductive at this time. Corrections need to be made in an orderly manner beginning at the beginning. Our approaches are very different. We both say something similar such as the speed of light is a local constant. however, taking your train example, if we disregard visual effects and speak only about physical effects, both clocks, front and back, will be physically slowed compared to the earth stationary observer.
"I certainly see motion as the heart of mass, but via inertia. One with just distance and time would be an interesting challenge to comprehend! - especially if it isn't moving. Mass is of course so central to nature that understanding it should make all else fall into place (even with some here screaming and kicking). I don't recall it from your essay."
A key point that I make is that the connection between empirical evidence and properties must be maintained as direct. This is why I say that all properties that are inferred by empirical evidence must be expressible in terms of the units of that empirical evidence. The units of all empirical evidence are meters and seconds. It is convenient to retain the name kilograms for mass; however, kilograms must be expressible in units of meters and seconds. This is true for all properties inferred by patterns in changes of velocity.
Force can have units named newtons, but, force must be expressible in units of meters and seconds. If that connection cannot be established, it is evidence that someone has made something up. For example, mass being an indefinable property is made up. Electric charge being an indefinable property is made up. Temperature being an indefinable property is made up. Each of these must be expressible in units of meters and seconds. The act of establishing all properties in terms of distance and time is the first act that must be taken in order to correct the fundamentals of theoretical physics.
I have mentioned the problem with f=ma many times. I also referred to it in my essay in the second essay contest. I mentioned above that even electric charge must be expressible in terms of distance and time. Actually some properties are expressible in terms of only distance or only time. But, all properties must be expressible in terms of distance and/or time. My essay in the first essay contest demonstrated what must be done with electric charge. My essay in the third contest gave a corrected form of Einstin's energy equation that resulted from making these changes.
Now with regard to the existence of the property of mass. Mass is the property of resistance to force. There is a reason for why objects resist force. It is that reason that exists whether or not an object is in motion. That reason can be given, but, giving it means giving the reason why relativity theory is wrong right from its start whether special realtivity or general relativity. I have avoided explaining the cause of resistance to force, because, it is more important and less time wasting to go right to the first correction that must be made. That correction is mass. After mass is corrected the rest of theory changes. After electric charge is corrected fundamental unity is achieved. After temperature is corrected, we learn what thermodynamic entropy is.
The importance of thermodynamic entropy is that it forms a pathway between two worlds. The first is fundamental, mechanical physics theory. The second is a world advancing through mathematics from physics, statistics, probabilities, to interpreting reality as information. Correcting thermodynamic entropy prepares the way to properly interpret the second world.
Nothing I have said is meant to imply that empirical evidence is not correct. And, no I do not have all of the answers. I continue to work my way through this appraoch. What I do offer is correction of fundamental theoretical physics. We all find ourselves restricted from being able to fully explain ourselves whether here in the blogs or in the essay contests. I keep putting pieces out there, and there is more. For example, the derivation of the universal constant of graviation.
James
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 2, 2011 @ 21:16 GMT
Peter,
A few more points: This is not meant to tell the world that they should hoist me up on shoulders; it is only meant to point out some conclusions I have come too that I feel confident about. One is that the nature of mass made it seem clear to me that there are no singularities. I also find no reason to believe in black holes. My approach does not lead to event horizons. There is no time dilation. There is slowing of activity with increasing speed under the correct conditions. There is length contraction. Mass does increase with velocity under the correct conditions.
For the cannon ball example, the mass of the cannon ball does increase. It matters not what the observer is doing. The increase in mass is a fact. What does change for observers who may be moving around is their ability to measure. Measurements do change for different observers. So they do see things happening differently. I do not mean this is due to visual effects, although they will also take part. The reasons that I bring up for changes in measurements are due to real physical changes in the observer and their apparatus. At this time, those are some of the conclusions I have reached. I have not gotten very far into accounting for quantum effects although, insofar as they pertain to the hydrogen atom, I find they fall into line very helpfully.
I say these things without wishing to debate them. I encourage you to promote your own ideas. You do need to get professionals to support your conclusions. My appraoch involves changes that begin at the beginning of theory and those changes change almost everything. It is not possible to make my case in 10 page essay form or in the blogs. To explain things such as how to derive the universal gravitational constant require telling the whole story. The whole story, so far as it has advanced, is told at my website. I enjoy very much participating here at fqxi.org, so I putter around putting out small seemingly unrelated pieces.
Best wishes to you in your efforts to convince the professionals. I do understand the impatience of the professionals with the bunch of us considering that we don't even agree with one another, yet everyone feels so sure about their ideas being correct. The professionals used to have their own ongoing conversations here that I found very interesting and appreciated. Now we are confronted by phrases such as 'non-sensical rot' and not much real professional involvment. I don't see a reason for interacting with those who would resort to such phraseology. I don't consider myself to be superior to them, but, I don't intend to submit to demeaning tactics. So, unproductive confrontation seems to be pretty much the role. So much for now, I have some lengthy writing to do.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 09:23 GMT
James
A very logical conclusion. Of course illogicality makes classic physics consistent with QM, so logic can easily be dismissed! But from the DFM's logic I've definitely noticed more convergence in your theory, which is also consistent with zeroing in on reality. I wish you luck defining mass. It needs doing, but I shall stick with considering the existence and characteristics of the condensate it 'pops up' from, and what existed before the 'big whatever' beginning of the universe, and unifying SR & QM.
Just a point on logic. You say; "however, taking your train example, if we disregard visual effects and speak only about physical effects, both clocks, front and back, will be physically slowed compared to the earth stationary observer."
To me that looses it's logic at the end, just like SR, because it has a 'self centric' viewpoint. You're making Earth special in the universe. Why should they not slow down wrt a moon or Mars stationary observer? Or an observer 'at rest' by moving at the same speed as Earth's rotation? If they're 'physically slowed' it can only be wrt A reference point/clock, or absolute time. That nominally takes up straight back to GT, with CSL back to being a paradox.
Only if the Earth's frame is one of 'infinitely many' in the universe can it work as a background frame, but a LOCAL background frame. That means ALL changes in oscillation rate are relative - which means from an observers viewpoint, which you term 'optical effect'. There is only one apparent reality for anybody, and nobody is special, so all 'effects' are of the same class, call them what you may. That then follows clear logic and matches the empirical evidence, giving CSL with background fields and without the LT.
Think really hard, as it IS a hard sequence to hold in a human brain, but it's the only solution with the essential logical monotonicity.
You should find the only valid observer frame for measurement is the same frame as the object being measured. That should fully clarify mass equivalence. What it's 'made' of I'll leave up to you!
In the final analysis there is an ultimate frame for a Universe, but that is irrelevant for local physics, which is the same in each.
Are you going to be one of the 1 in 5?
Best wishes
Peter
PS I'm glad you seem to agree on no singularities at the core of black holes. I assume you've now seen my viXra paper on helixes and toroid smbh's?
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 16:55 GMT
Peter,
My opinion is: There are no singularities anywhere. There are no black holes or centers of black holes. I have not read your paper. What I have read of yours has caused me to ask some questions. My impression is that I have on different occasions not gotten straight answers. I have thought very hard for years. I have done the explaining and the mathematics necessary to support what I say. Most of it is several years old and has been on the Internet. My website went online in 1995.
Both clock's really do slow down just because the train has a velocity relative to the earth. The train really does shorten and its mass really does increase. I do not agree with your perspective. The Lorentz transforms are not superfluous. I don't think that what I think should matter to you. It is the professionals whom you must gain support from.
I already know what mass is and it is included at my website. I have derived the lorentz transform replacement equations without beginning with the principle of the constant speed of light. I have derived replacement equations for many aspects of theoretical physics. They are on public display.
I do not wish to debate with another amateur. I see little value if any in doing that. The professionals do not agree with me, but they are not stupid. They are highly qualified and experienced and you need their agreement. My work is going nowhere unless they become voluntarily convinced that I have something right. I expect that the same holds true for your work. I encourage you to argue your case with them on its own merits. Stick to the point and maintain respect for their achievement.
JamesPutnam
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Albert Einstein wrote on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 12:03 GMT
" Of course illogicality makes classic physics consistent with QM, so logic can easily be dismissed! "
I heard that too !
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Bubba wrote on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 14:58 GMT
Fellas, just some advice.
There was a difference between Aristotle and Newton. What would you say that difference was?
The realization by Galileo and his contemporaries that all of the observed behavior of natural objects follow precise mathematical laws represents the line of demarcation between natural philosophy and physics. This realization that nature follows precise...
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Fellas, just some advice.
There was a difference between Aristotle and Newton. What would you say that difference was?
The realization by Galileo and his contemporaries that all of the observed behavior of natural objects follow precise mathematical laws represents the line of demarcation between natural philosophy and physics. This realization that nature follows precise mathematical was the point where a schism occurred with Aristotlean physics. The physics of Aristotle consisted solely of ideas that didn't provide much in the way of specifics. Aristotle provided blanket statements that were based on philosophical deductions.
The work of Galileo, Kepler, and Newton was based on explicit and precise measurements and observations and the ideas were presented in a very explicit and precise way using mathematical formalisms. The works of the same were not a philosophical treatise on the nature of motion or time.
It was observed that an object thrown through the air will follow follows a parabola and its time of flight can be calculated with exact precision. Through precise measurements, it was deduced that the planets follow an ellipse and their orbits sweep out equal areas in equal time. It was theorized that such a relationship would necessitate that a force of interaction exists between the planets and the sun which varies inversely as the square of the distance. Since there would be no valid reason to assign any special property to massive bodies in the heavens, all bodies should be subject to such an interaction. Hence, the theory of Universal Gravitation --a precise mathematical statement that can be applied to all bodies, anywhere, at any time.
That is Physics.
Physics without mathematics is just old-school Aristotle. Such speculations might be of value to a philosopher, but not to a physicist. To be a successful physicist, it is not sufficient to simply play the philosopher and try to think your way through every problem by appealing only to abstract ideas about what could be or what can be. You must also be aware of how any new idea ties into existing mathematical formalisms which precisely describe the workings of nature and you must be able to express these original ideas using such formalisms.
The theoretical community is not looking for an Aristotle redux. Physicsts are looking for original ideas that are framed with sufficient mathematical rigor and detail so as to be of practical value to the community.
It is the aversion by many people here to frame their ideas in the context of such precise mathematical formalisms that is the cause of these ideas being ignored and passed off as 'incoherent rot.'
In short, you are not doing physics. You are engaging in campfire discussions about reality, time, space, and the nature of reality. The result is going to be pretty straightforward and is exactly what we see here--everyone's going to have an opinion but the opinion will be totally devoid of information content that will provide something of value to a physicist.
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Dr. Cosmic Ray replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 15:20 GMT
Dear Friends,
Bubba said "The result is going to be pretty straightforward and is exactly what we see here--everyone's going to have an opinion but the opinion will be totally devoid of information content that will provide something of value to a physicist."
I agree.
Opinions are like belly buttons - everyone has one, but some are "fuzzier" than others.
Our descriptions of reality need to use mathematics and language together to reduce the "fuzziness".
Have Fun!
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 17:15 GMT
I use mathematics. What I do not do is discard unity because of lack of knowledge. I stick with the problem until I find the solution that fits with fundamental unity. I say that physicists were not and are not justified in arbitrarily making mass an indefinable property and assigning it indefinable units of measurement. You either get the fundamentals correct right from the start or you must later engage in patching things up by speculating about new theoretical and unempirical properties.
JamesPutnam
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Bubba replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:22 GMT
The goal is not to obtain fundamental unity. The goal is to create a mathematical description for the phenomenon under study.
The strictly deductive methods employed by many posters here represent those of old-school Aristotle, not post-1600 physics.
For the past four centuries, it has been common knowledge that nature displays phenomenon that follow precise mathematical laws. Why nature works this way is irrelevant. She does. The physcist is concerned with forumlating these mathematical laws, not engaging in semantics or attempting to uncover abstract fundamental features which define reality. Ever since Gallileo, natural philosophers stopped writing philosophical treatises and starting formulating their ideas in terms of the mathematical relationships among the things being observed. They dropped the ambiguity and semantics in favor of the exactness of mathematics. They became physicists. You will not find one physicist after Galileo who had any success in the field without using mathematics as the language to express the ideas contained in a theory.
People here are neutering physics and dumbing it down and creating a throwback to the pre-Galilean days of Aristotle, when people got into fistfights over whether space went on forever or just stopped. The explanatory power and success that physics has enjoyed comes exclusively from the precise mathematical formalisms that created precise answers, with no room for ambiguity. If the answer to a question cannot be formulated in this way, it is not physics. It is something else.
An increase in our understanding of the physical world no longer comes from Plato and Arristotle sitting in a cave eating a turkey drumstick while arguing about the fundamental nature of space and time.
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:48 GMT
Bubba,
"The goal is not to obtain fundamental unity. The goal is to create a mathematical description for the phenomenon under study."
It is true that we do not always need to 'know' that which we are counting and, that so long as our counting successfully allows us to extrapolate future counting of that which we do not 'know', that we can continue to make use of that which we do not 'know'. However, for those who want to 'know', fundamental unity must be achieved. It is the key to 'knowing'. It requires 'knowing' what mass is. It matters what mass is. It matters what cause is. It matters what properties a theory purports to represent. It matters which properties are real and which are inventions of the mind.
JamesPutnam
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Bubba replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 20:10 GMT
A precise mathematical formalism is all we need to understand a theory in physics. The equations themselves tell us what we need to know and what to look for. Everything else is rot.
If one had never heard of relativity and was presented with a paper which outlined the mathematical formalisms, they would be in possession of all they needed to know.
What would the equations tell you?
-- Time and space are not invariant. Galilean transformations do not apply.
-- The speed of light cannot be exceeded as to do so results in an undefined value which approaches infinity. This is not a physically admissible solution.
-- When at rest, instead of possessing zero energy, the the ratio of energy to mass is a constant.
-- The Mass-energy tensor completely defines the geometric properties of the surrounding spacetime.
-- Inertial and gravitational mass are equivalent.
-- At low velocities and low values for energy, and mass, we would not observe anything out of the ordinary classical world of Newton.
and on and on...
The inferences drawn from a few simple equations prove far more productive than any long-winded philosophical rambling about the nature of space and time.
The information content contained in the mathematics far exceeds that which could be stated in a similar number of lines of prose.
Not a single word is needed yet there is no ambiguity, no questions,no incoherent rot. It is precise, exact, and explicit.
This is Physics at its finest.
Amen
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 20:30 GMT
Bubba,
"A precise mathematical formalism is all we need to understand a theory in physics. The equations themselves tell us what we need to know and what to look for. Everything else is rot. ... (relativity whatever, etc.)"
Ok, I understand your point. It is that: You believe that equations based upon unanswered fundamental questions can give us correct understanding. Neither time nor space are part of Relativity equations and that doesn't bother you. You recite an equation with mass in it but you don't know what mass is and that doesn't bother you. The equations you use are formed to fit patterns in empirical evidence, then because they fit patterns in empirical evidence you say: What marvelous equations they are for guiding us in our understanding of the nature of the universe. Yet, they give back nothing that the theorist did not first put into them based upon the theorists understanding of the patterns in empirical evidence.
James
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Anonymous replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 21:13 GMT
"..based upon the theorists understanding of the patterns in empirical evidence. "
Amen. Now you are on your way to understanding. Empirical evidence is the key to Science. I think you are starting to get somewhere.
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 21:19 GMT
Bubba,
I am already somewhere and, I am more empirically minded than are you. That is why I press the question of why was mass made an indefinable property. You have no empirical basis for doing that. Now you are stuck with equations that have units that cannot be mixed. For example: I presented the equation h=kec in my essay in the second essay contest. The k is Boltzmann's constant. In your theoretical world where indefinable units are made up, that equation makes no sense. Get your units correct right from the start and your theory will derive that equation and it will makes sense. By the way, it is evidence of the existence of fundamental unity.
James
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Bubba replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 22:43 GMT
I would respond to your last paragraph if I knew what I should be responding to. I can't do that as I was not able to make sense out of anything you just stated. I am not really sure what you just happened here. The conversation took a really bad turn or something.
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 23:25 GMT
Bubba,
Not impressed huh? Makes no sense right? I just reread it and it makes good sense. Perhaps you think that the equation is an obvious case of pure meaningless chance. So, even though I know it must already be clear, I will make it even clearer for other readers. Each of the terms in that equation represent a well known, well established constant. They have wildly different magnitudes. The chance of their magnitudes forming an equality in any form without reason is far beyond any reasonable expectation. The stumbling block that keeps today's theories from deriving this equation are the indefinable units arbitrarily assigned, without empirical justification, to both electric charge and temperature. Degrees Kelvin are included in the units of Boltzmann's constant.
The equation does not hold in all systems of units. The reason has to do with how electric charge is defined. Electric charge must be defined independently of Coulomb's equation. In the mks system electric charge is defined as: One coulomb is the quantity of charge passing through a section of a conductor in which there is a constant current of one ampere. In other words, the definition of electric charge is referenced to the definition of current. The unit of current, the ampere, is defined as: That constant current when present in each of two parallel conductors of infinite length and one meter apart in empty space causes each conductor to experience a force, per unit length of the conductor, of exactly 2x10^-7 newtons per meter.
The point is that current is referenced to the fundamental properties of force and distance, while electric charge is, in turn, referenced to current. It is important to recognize that current is defined in terms of an empirical measurement involving force and distance. This act references the measurement of current to two true fundamental properties. The result is that the magnitude of electric charge is empirically based. This is not true for systems of units that define electric charge using Coulomb's equation with the proportionality constant set equal to one.
Still, the equation's units do not match and units must match. When theoretical physics rids itself of artificially indefinable units it will catch sight of the existence of fundamental unity. One result, among many other advances, will be that h=kec will make sense.
James
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Bubba replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 23:40 GMT
Steve Dufourny replied on Apr. 5, 2011 @ 12:53 GMT
from Belgium of course!The best beers of the world....:)
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 5, 2011 @ 17:31 GMT
Bubba,
I assume you finished your beer? Are you professionally interested enough to explain for the benefit of other readers what is wrong with what I have said in my last message? By the way: Are you that Rational Anonymous who posted? If you are, you are free to use my name as an example. My permission is granted. No complaints. No hard feelings. No retribution.
James
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Dr. Cosmic Ray wrote on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 18:14 GMT
Dear JamesPutnam,
I agree that the origin of mass is important. It seems ironic that we have had F=ma for over three hundred years, and still don't understand the origin of mass. But Classical Physics still works anyway...
I think that Higgs Theory is a first-order approximation that may solve the Z and W masses and longitudinal degrees-of-freedom, but I really don't expect Higgs theory to explain the masses of all of the fundamental fermions. That's why I'm developing my Pentality symmetries! These five-fold symmetries tie in with the origin of mass similarly to Coldea et al's magnetic quasiparticles.
I think that you and I agree more than you realize. You are worried about CAUSE and the first cause. Many of these other realists are worried about EFFECT - after all effect is what we measure (experiment and bottom-up logic), cause is what we deduce from effect (theory and top-down logic), and the first cause is the Theory of Everything (the ultimate unification)!
Have Fun!
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:21 GMT
Dear Ray,
In my opinion: At the beginning of theory, we could not expect to know what mass is. That is understandable. We can't and do not need to wait until we know the nature of mass in order to develop theory so that we may use its equations for practical purposes.
The immediate problem with f=ma is not that mass is not understood, it is that it was given indefinable units without justification. The units matter greatly for all theory that uses mass. I see no justification for concluding that either force or mass must be made an indefinable property. I do see justification for expecting that both of those properties should be represented by combinations of units of distance and time.
Mass is not the only property that received this unjustified treatment. Any property that is given its own indefinable units instead of combinations of units of distance and time represents an artificially created obstacle to understanding the nature of the universe.
So far as cause is concerned, my position is that there is a single cause for all effects that have and will ever occur in this universe. The concept of separate causes is directly related to arbitrarily introducing indefinable units into the equations of theoretical physics.
That is what I think and it is the basis of my own theoretical work. For anyone new reading this, I am not a physicist.
JamesPutnam
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Dr. Cosmic Ray replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:40 GMT
Dear JamesPutnam,
If you want a more correct treatment of units, you might read
Peter van Gaalen's essay. His general metric at the bottom of page 4 implies 16 dimensions.
The "Primum movens" is an important philosophical/ theoretical (because theory relates implied causes to visible effects) question. Some people use the question of a first cause as an argument for God. I use it as an argument for a Theory of Everything.
BTW, I think you can go back to "James". For a short while, there was a James #2, but we knew that he wasn't you. That would be like getting me mixed up with Tom Ray or Raymond Aschheim.
Have Fun!
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 6, 2011 @ 21:31 GMT
Dear Ray,
I am not prepared to challenge Peter van Gaalen's essay. I read it. There are just two points that I have to make. One is that all efforts to arrive at natural units are obstructed by any artificial units that still exist. My argument has been that there are only two units that we need naturally. They are the units of distance and time. All others are arbitrary and artificial. So, about the only thing that I can add is that I think that Planck's units are not correct. One problem with them is that they use G in their derivations. My position is that G is not a true universal constant.
In fact, I say there is only one true universal constant and that constant is electric charge. You may have followed my discussions with Bubba where I said very recently that there is no such thing as electric charge. So, what I am saying to you does look contradictory. However, I said first that there are only two units that we need to represent all properties. Therefore, I will make it clear that my point about there being just one natural constant has to do with the magnitude of electric charge and not its theoretical interpretations.
James
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 6, 2011 @ 21:33 GMT
Dear Ray,
Correction: I should have referred to the magnitude of electric charge as being the only universal constant.
James
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Dr. Cosmic Ray replied on Apr. 7, 2011 @ 00:59 GMT
Dear James,
Just think about Peter's ideas...
There are "units" from Mechanics - such as distance, time , and mass (don't ignore it - even if we don't fully understand its true origin)
and "units" from Electromagnetism - such as the Coulomb measure of electric charge. A lot of "units" can be rewritten in terms of these.
BTW, my ideas emphasize the importance of the fine-structure "constant", and it is relevant to the Scales of which I speak.
Have Fun!
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 7, 2011 @ 01:08 GMT
Dear Ray,
The units of mass are inverse acceleration. The units of electric charge are seconds. My essay in the first essay contest shows the link between the two expressions of the fine structure constant. I could have continued for 20 pages and shown what thermodynamic entropy is.
James
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Peter van Gaalen replied on Apr. 10, 2011 @ 11:42 GMT
Hi Ray and James,
Ray thanks for refering to my essay.
James, formerly electric charge was expressed by 'e root-K' (unit: statcoulomb) and mass by 'm root-G'. The advantage is that electric charge and mass have the same dimension. The disadvantage is that both quantities charge and mass are vectors, because K and G are both vectors. For me the most obvious way to write the charges for electric charge is 'e root-K/c' and for mass is 'm root-G/c'. The advantage is that they have the same dimension and they are both scalars. And a funny thing is that if squared they both have the same dimension as the planck constant.
Action is a scalar and has the same dimension as angular momentum, but angular momentum is a vector: a pseudovector (secundary vector). To really understand what is going on I think it is more convenient to use only primary vectors, therefore it is not appropriate to use angular momentum. It is more convenient to use for example mass-centre motion divided by phase, because that is primary a vector.
Formerly the U(1) group was used to describe electric charge. The corresponding observable was called electric charge. Later U(1) was re-used for the electroweak force. The corresponding observable was called hypercharge. Hypercharge describes how particles transforms under U(1). Weak isospin describes how particles transforms under SU(2).
Electric charge is less fundamental than the concepts of weak isospin end hypercharge. The electric charge is computed from Hypercharge and weak isospin.
I see a connection between U(1) used for electric charge and my electromagnetic metric:
pos e-charge^2 + pos em-flux^2 = neg e-charge^2 + neg em-flux^2
Because the lie-algebra U(1) consists of the imaginary numbers. and my metric can be decomposed in two opposite imaginary numbers. The importance is that the U(1) group is about particles while my metric is about quantities and dimensions.
Now my purpose is te define quantities like electric charge and (electro-)magnetic flux, but in this case for the electroweak force. So in this way I am going to describe the electroweak force as classical as the Maxwell equations are.
SU(2) is almost the vector part of a quaternion. The three weak isospin components I1, I2 and I3.
Greetings,
Peter van Gaalen
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Ray Munroe replied on Apr. 11, 2011 @ 13:34 GMT
Hi Peter,
Yes - Electric Charge can be defined in terms of Weak Hypercharge and Weak Isospin, and I played with these - and more complex - ideas in my book and my 2009 FQXi essay. Does this then represent one (Q) or two (Y and T) dimensions? The recent "new bosonic force carrier" Z' at Fermi Lab has caused me to restudy my Hyperflavor-Electroweak ideas (Z' minimally exists in Pati-Salam Weak theory, and Hyperflavor-Electroweak is the next larger-ranked extension of Pati-Salam Weak). These particular Z' discovery statistics depend so strongly on jet energy rescaling that I am concerned that FNL may have made an energy binning error.
Have Fun!
Dr. Cosmic Ray
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 11, 2011 @ 21:37 GMT
Peter van Gaalen,
Thank you for your polite and informative reply. As I mentioned to Ray, I am not prepared to debate units within the context of their treatment in today's physics. That is what I meant when I said that I wasn't prepared to debate units with you. I probably will never reach that point. My approach takes a very different direction right from its start. Its appeal to...
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Peter van Gaalen,
Thank you for your polite and informative reply. As I mentioned to Ray, I am not prepared to debate units within the context of their treatment in today's physics. That is what I meant when I said that I wasn't prepared to debate units with you. I probably will never reach that point. My approach takes a very different direction right from its start. Its appeal to physicists is non-existant, so I work alone finding my own way through theoretical physics.
While I am familiar with statcoulombs, I am not familiar with your related representations of electric charge and mass. I use the mks system of units because it derives the correct empirical value of electric charge. The other systems that set the proportionality constant equal to unity in coulomb's equation get it wrong. I also use a type of mathematics that was used for a while in engineering schools in the 60's. That choice was on purpose. It allows me to right the mathematics in a way that more easily follows textual descriptions. I write for non-physicists because physicists will not read it anyway.
My response to your message where you describe your approach is for me to give an introduction to my own approach. That approach has two beginning principles. One is that there is only one cause for all effects in the universe. Another way of saying this is to claim that fundamental unity exists. The way in which this is shown is to begin theory with unity and to continue to demonstrate that unity every step along the way of development of new theory.
The second principle is that all properties are inferred by observations of empirical evidence, therefore, they must ultimately be expressible in terms of that evidence. Since all empirical evidence is communicated to us in terms of patterns of changes of distance during changes of time, all properties inferred from the study of those patterns must ultimately be expressible in terms of distance and time. In my work, that means the only true fundamental units are meters and seconds.
The first application of these principles is to determine how to express force and mass in terms of distance and time. I have found that the choice that works is for mass to have units of inverse acceleration and force to be unitless. Mass as inverse acceleration allows for results such as calculating the radius of the hydrogen atom. Force being unitless allows for the calculation of the physical basis of the universal graviational constant.
All indefinable properties and their indefinable units must be removed. One more of those is electric charge. I find that electric charge interpreted as a measure of time is the key to establishing unity among all theory. It ties everything together. Each explanation of a physical effect leads to the explanation of one or more other physical effects. The mysteries melt away smoothly. I often offer some results that I have achieved as example equations. They receive no attention no matter how improbable they otherwise are. An example I have not given is that if one multiplies the speed of light by electric charge where the units of electric charge are seconds one attains the radius of the hydrogen atom.
Mathematically, the value of interpreting electric charge as a universally constant measure of time is that in many differential equations where a change is measured with respect to the infinitesimal dt, replacing that dt with the incremental value of delta t equal to the magnitude of electric charge leads directly to many known empirical measurements of properties. It allows for the ratio of electron speed in the hydrogen atom to the speed of light to be derived directly from the equation for alpha in terms of its equation formed from fundamental constant of electromagnetism (e), quantum theory (h-bar) and relativity theory (c). Another example is that it allows for establishing the physical basis of Boltzmann's constant.
With regard to fractions of three and electric charge, I have found that it is the speed of light that fractionalizes in the atom. For example the mass of the proton predicts a speed of light equal to one third of the vacuum speed of light. The inclusion of an electron forming the hydrogen atom predicts an internal atomic speed of light of two thirds the vacuum speed. I haven't gotten everything worked out yet. I probably never will. But, I keep moving forward and keep achieving good results.
The single cause for all effects is the variation of the speed of light. The inverse acceleration represented by the property of mass is the acceleration of the light from or to the particle in question. The existence of the particle is explained completely as a mostly local variation in the speed of light. Gravity is the rate of change of the speed of light with distance from a more remote perspective. The acceptance of a variable speed of light accounts for all effects so far. It also does away with the unempirical notion of time dilation. Rates of activity vary due to the variation of the speed of light.
Ok. I think that is more than enough said. I don't expect comments on this message. You have a very different perspective and it works well from your point of view. My perspective would require believing that almost all theory will have to change. I don't ask for agreement with that. However, I will continue to develop the work that I have been doing. I am perhaps halfway through redefining the fundamentals of physics theory. Thank you for your attention and good luck with your own work.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:33 GMT
Ray
"..but Classical Physics still works anyway..."
Something I missed?
OK, ..if we agree Aristotle's physics worked ok in his day too...
And were we supposed to; "..provide something of value to a physicist." here? ..Ooops!
As I've said before, I've done maths (and even mistakenly broke out into some in my essay string against my vow!) but have learnt that our problem has been not getting the conceptual basis correct first and keeping the maths in line with it. It's not a mistake I'll be temped to make, there are plenty in the main flock going that way. The maths will come soon enough. If you're Hungary for some earlier Bubba? sorry, - you'll have to do your own!
Peter
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Dr. Cosmic Ray replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:54 GMT
Hi Peter,
All of our theories "work" in their respective realms of applicability. We have to know which problems require Classical Mechanics, Quantum Mechanics, Relativity, Statistical Mechanics, and so on.
I was a grad student at the University of Texas while the late, great John Archibald Wheeler was a Professor there. I remember attending a seminar where Wheeler said (realize that this was 30 years ago, so I may be using some artistic license in the specific wording) that he expected a Grand Unified Theory to include Classical Mechanics, Quantum Mechanics, Relativity, Statistical Mechanics, and so on.
I was thrilled that Wheeler recognized the importance of Statistical Mechanics because I was working on my Quantum Statistical Grand Unified Theory (QSGUT) at the time, and most people focus on the glaring inconsistancies of Quantum vs. Relativity, and overlook everything else.
If we have learned anything from over three Centuries of Physics, we should know that our equations represent good approximations to reality. Is this all that there is to reality? As a top-down thinker myself, I hope not. Because I hope to someday understand the beauty of the GUT/ TOE.
Have Fun!
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Dr. Cosmic Ray replied on Apr. 4, 2011 @ 19:58 GMT
p.s. - BTW, did you say "If you're Hungary for some earlier Bubba?" for a reason? I assumed that Bubba was Czech, not Hungarian (close, but not the same).
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Peter Jackson wrote on Apr. 7, 2011 @ 20:15 GMT
Ray
Is Transylvania in Hungary or Bulgaria? I assumed he was American! Did you see Eckard's note to Tom? It's excellently considered, as you may expect. (see his essay string if not)
James
I do rather like your concept of inverse acceleration as a mind opener. Just you let you know not everything here (or even Hungary) is stoney ground.
Peter
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Cristinel Stoica replied on Apr. 8, 2011 @ 13:03 GMT
James Putnam replied on Apr. 8, 2011 @ 15:11 GMT
Dear Peter and all,
"I do rather like your concept of inverse acceleration as a mind opener. Just you let you know not everything here (or even Hungary) is stoney ground."
Thank you. This is a very difficult point to get across to experts. Yet it is quite simple. If we give units of kilograms to mass, it tells us nothing about what mass is. Those units are fine for convenience, but, they are devoid of information and even obstruct scientific learning.
Learning comes from empirical evidence. Every property that becomes included in theoretical physics must have its meaning clearly established by empirical evidence. Nothing should be allowed that cannot be expressed in the units of the very evidence that demonstrates the existence of the property.
There are only two units of empirical evidence, they are the units of distance and time. That empirical evidence about distance and time always comes in patterns of changes of velocity. In other words, the evidence is always about acceleration.
The natural fundamental units of force divided by mass must be such that they reduce to the units of acceleration. There are more than one choice, but the choice that makes sense and provides fundamental unity through physics theory is that mass has units of inverse acceleration. That means that the denominator of mass is representative of a property that is undergoing acceleration. That property is light.
Learning what mass is does away with relativity theory. As long as relativity theory stays, physicists will not learn what mass is. As important as it is to get mass correct in order to correct all theory that uses mass; it is also very important to get electric charge right.
I stand by what I said: There is no such thing as electric charge. The correct units for electric charge are seconds. It is a property of light. Correcting electric charge by tying it directly to empirical evidence is the key to theoretical unity. That single change unifies theory in a way that leads to explanations of other properties.
James
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Peter Jackson replied on Apr. 11, 2011 @ 18:13 GMT
James
No matter how much it goes round the think tank and from which angle I look, to me it needs one more quality. It may be the unknowable I referred in my abstract, or the quality that causes the intrinsic rotation in space, and the drag of the vacuum; (DOI:10.1103/PhysRevA.82.063827) I can't make anything physical work conceptually without an eternal triangle, particularly only with time as 50% of the universe. But let me know how you get on with just two.
I've just slotted a last piece into an important section of mine, but we are looking in different areas. I rather thought mine fundamental but yours gets both the prize for fun AND de mental one! But I can't yet see how it may be falsifiable, which is the essential quality I insist on for my own research.
I see it a bit like this; A team of physicists in the 1920's are given a 2010 computer to solve a series of key problems with. They're studying all the bits in confusion. My model shows them how to turn it on, use a mouse and keyboard and navigate the software to get answers from it. Yours may explain what silicon chips and program languages do. Both are needed, yours is ultimately essential, but mine solves the problems at hand to allow progression. But we should stay in touch as the two do have to connect.
The problem I now have is that the instructions are all in place, but because they're contrary to what they've been taught and known as fact all their lives they won't try following them, and they dismiss it as a box of nonsense. I genuinely didn't forsee that one! You know it works, what do you think, should I now deconstruct and completely rebuild it to look like a model T Ford?
Perhaps when we get to Mars and understand there really is a Mars centred reference frame just like the Earths, so em waves change speed by different amounts entering Mars and Earth's frames, the penny will drop, as will the LT.
Peter
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 12, 2011 @ 19:01 GMT
Dear Peter Jackson - Part one,
Thank you for your interesting message. I will give a response which I hope addresses some of your questions. If not, please let me know. I am going to wirte an answer that will include more detail than you need. However, I try to write for all readers. That is why I never use acronyms and so forth.
There is need for only two units of measurement. They...
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Dear Peter Jackson - Part one,
Thank you for your interesting message. I will give a response which I hope addresses some of your questions. If not, please let me know. I am going to wirte an answer that will include more detail than you need. However, I try to write for all readers. That is why I never use acronyms and so forth.
There is need for only two units of measurement. They are distance and time. Here I often go along with the crowd and use the description time when it is duration that is actually appropriate. Neither time nor space are available for experimentation. Neither of them can be shown to have a velocity let alone experience changes of velocity. It is only through changes of velocity that we learn everything about the universe. Theoretical physics portends to represent knowledge about activities of space and time when there is no empirical evidence to support this claim. There is no space-time. There is only the motion of objects. Empirically speaking, there is only the change of velocity of objects.
Yet, when we make measurements of these changes of velocity, those measurements are taken in space and during time. We use the position and motion of objects to set standards for measurements of length in space and durations during time. There is always that limitation that we know only information about changes of velocity of objects. So, length is length as determined by position of objects. Time, again really duration, is determined by cyclic activity involving repetitive patterns of changes of velocity.
The first point to make about our source of all knowledge about the mechanical operation of the universe is that all empirical evidence arrives as object centerred measurements of distance and duration both occurring in space and during time. Therefore, there are only two permissible indefinable properties and two permissible indefinable units of measurement. The two properties are space and time. The two units, in the system of mks units that I use for introductory purposes, are meters and seconds. Later after theory is developed I can speak about the natural units of measurement as presented to us by the universe. For now, those are not in use.
In all physics equations, all units should consist of meters and seconds only. This brings me to what I think might be one of your concerns. Empirical evidence is about effects. The units of empirical evidence are units of effects. How then do we meaningfully represent causes in our equations? The answer is that cause is never a part of equations. Cause is unknown. Cause is represented in every equation by the equals sign. Even in the simple equation f=ma, f does not represent cause. It is the assignment of a name to use instead of explaining the details of ma.
The equation is not really a physics equation. The equation is saying that we have decided to call ma by the name force. In real physics equations, there is always the presence of initial conditions on the left side and final conditions on the right side. In the middle is the equals sign representing the cause of change from the initial conditions to the final conditions. This limitation of physics equations exposes some very significant errors by theoretical physisists.
The point is that every time there is presented to us a physics equation that purports to include a cause on either side of the equals sign that cause is artificial. I use electric charge as an example. Electric charge is not a cause of anything. It is a measurement of a universally constant measure of duration. Whether here or there or large or small, it is a universal constant measurement of duration. I will stop here and wait to see if there is further interest.
With regard to rejection of new ideas by theoretical physicists, I do see it occur. My own approach has been to not present my overall view of the operation of the universe, because, I do expect it to fall on deaf ears. Instead, I present beginning arguments that expose early fundamental errors such as the assignement of mass as an indefinable property with its own indefinable units. Even when making such an obvious point, there is incredible resistance. Even when I present easy, relatively short equations that represent results that I have achieved, they are ignored. I will take the opportunity to present another one in case any physicists are reading this message. It is: Planck's constant divided by Boltzmann's constant yields the magnitude of the radius of the hydrogen atom. In my own wrok, where units are corrected, Planck's constant divided by Boltzmann's constant predicts the size of the hydrogen atom.
I am not complaining. I am simply acknowledging that there are two stresses at work here. One is that I think I know what I am talking about. The other is that theoretical physicists think that they know what they are talking about. When the two of us are compared, why would anyone easily be convinced by what I have to say. So, the lesson is that it is perserverence that counts. Correctness first, but perserverence is just as important.
James
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 12, 2011 @ 19:03 GMT
Peter Jackson - Part two,
One last thing: Wither regard to falsifiability. I don't generally worry about that. The reason is that developing theory involves many mistakes and corrections. I am not done with devloping theory and, therefore, are vulnerable to making mistakes. Predictions made by theory that still includes mistakes are potentially more destructive that constructive for winning an argument. However, I will present one prediction.
Today there is a strong experimental interest in detecting gravity waves. I say that those waves are reaching us all the time. However, they appear to arrive as electromagnetic waves. They are very low frequency and are supperimposed upon all the other frequencies of local photons which may be subjected to measurements. The frequency of gravitational waves is masked by the much stronger normal frequencies of photons. With the correct filtering, the expected frequency of gravitational waves should, at least theoretically, be detectible. An important distinction must be added: The effect of revolution of massives bodies, no matter how far away they are, will be immediately felt by us locally.
Thank you again for your interest.
James
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Peter Jackson replied on Apr. 15, 2011 @ 19:36 GMT
Hi James
Reality is just in my nature, if it's not falsifiable I feel I have better things to do! But it's good that we're all different. Despite the continued lessons of history apparently there are still some around who think Einstien was a fool when he said "we don't yet understand 1,000th of 1%..", and think we happen to have physics all sorted just at this moment! That must be why they don't consider and discuss possible new science!
I agree with much of your posts, including gravity waves, but then you threw that last curved ball on purpose didn't you. Well even MY lateral thinking got knocked off the page with that. Ok I'm thinking non-zero rather than 'feel', and will keep bearing it in mind, but as EVERYTHING in space rotates it can only be a net 'topagraphical' effect, which I could understand, or do you have something else REALLY off the wall!?
As you seem happy to consider and discuss science, see if you can get your head round this and let me know; It's similar to an essay post you probably missed, correcting (oops, sorry!) the position AE was forced into (15th Ed. Viii p22) on the Relativity of Simultanetieousnessity"!
LIGHTNING STRIKES TWICE
Simultaneously at back and front of a train. Observer 'Oe' half way between outside sees them simultaneously.
It enters the train via the front and rear glass screens (n=1.55) so changes speed entering the glass to c/n with respect to the train. It's then re-emitted (via normal atomic scattering) to the air (n=1.0003) or even into a vacuum (n=1) [as waves or photons as you wish], and travels at c/n or c WITH RESPECT TO THE TRAIN through the train. So, contrary to the solution Einstein had to settle for, observer 'Ot' inside and half way down the train ALSO SEES THEM SIMULTANEOUSLY! (He's just in a slightly different place when he does). Each observer measures all light REACHING THEM at 'c' (or c/n).
This is now precisely what we find in experiments, with no paradox and the train doesn't have to shrink! It's also why the law of refraction fails at co-moving media. - Mind you, it's gone into print a few times and most people can't conceive it or are dumbfounded, as they either didn't understand SR in the first place, or just use 'beliefs'! I suspect you may conceive it ok. He just needed to keep his 'rigid body' and 'three plane surfaces' and not let x,y, and z try to represent 'motion', an invalid concept in geometry and therefore also in vector space!
Anyone else who reads this and understands it get's an Extra Special (relativity) prize and badge. Do let me know.
Best wishes
Peter
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Author Frank Martin DiMeglio replied on Apr. 15, 2011 @ 19:48 GMT
Simultaneity requires the sameness of experience. Ultimately, simultaneity requires that larger and smaller space to be combined and included. Everyone's experience is different. Experience and being are ultimately inseparable.
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 15, 2011 @ 22:35 GMT
Dear Peter Jackson,
"Each observer measures all light REACHING THEM at 'c' (or c/n)."
I have been concentrating on writing a paper about thermodynamic entropy. Unfortunately for me, the length of the paper is dictated to be relatively short. It is challenging to include all the theoretical changes I found necessary in order just to explain even thermodynamic entropy. In other words, my work is not based upon the fundamentals of theoretical physics as they are currently taught. So, I view matters through a different prism. It would be helpful to me if you could give your view on what occurs for this:
If, instead of a train, the example was a very long fish tank, and, the fish was making the measurement. What occurs to cause the fish to measure the speed of light as C? I know that that is what would occur. It is the mechanics involved, from your point of view, in causing a non-constant value to be measured locally as a constant value that I am interested in. If I am not being clear, please let me know. It would be of interest to know your view regarding differences between a moving fish tank, as in the train example, and a stationary one with regard to the surface of the earth.
I did make my statment with regard to the instantaneous effects of a gravitational wave on purpose. That is because my perspective on it does not depend upon the time of arrival for photons. Rather, it depends upon the control of the speed of light as contributed to by the mass in question.
James
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Peter Jackson replied on Apr. 16, 2011 @ 13:21 GMT
James
The mechanism is PMD from scattering, as all optics students know, and the well understood basis of Fibre Optics science. (There's are some good references links in my essay). In a dielectric medium light propagates by atomic scattering, charging ('polarising') particles which re-emitt the signal. This is equivalent to QED, and electrons absorbing and emitting photons. The slight delay subject to medium density, polarisation etc. is what dictates 'n' and causes refraction. This is all standard stuff, and the basis of the Discrete Field Model (DFM)
The refractive index of water is say n=1.33. So light goes through the fish tank at 140,000miles/sec. Now forget all the confusing religious history we're taught and just check optical science, experimentation and logic for consistency. They all agree light goes through water at c/n, or 140,000miles/ sec. It doesn't matter which planet or spacecraft the water is on, or indeed how fast the emitter was moving, that speed is ONLY measured with respect to the water, i.e. the waters 'inertial frame'. So a fish at rest in that frame measures it at that speed. Neither the water, fish or light moving within it knows or cares about how the water may be moving with respect to anything or anyone else. So the only valid measurement frame, for ALL fish tanks everywhere, is the water, or tank itself.
And because of the glass tank sides it's the same if the tank is full or empty, or contains a vacuum. The light changes from c/n through the glass to c (n=1) when it exits the glass. That bit there is the key to finally properly understanding relativity and all of nature, light can only ever be 'scattered' at c or c/n. If it arrives at a different speed or 'rate', it;s simply Doppler shifted by that process. That is the DFM. (please cite it with all use).
But if the fish is swimming in the tank? ..It's exactly the same process. As soon as the light hits the fine structure electrons of the new medium (eye lens n=1.38) it's Doppler shifted again because it's scattered onwards at the new, different, speed. The easiest way to remember it is that there are TWO speed changes,
1. Due to the index 'n' of the new medium, the other,
2. Due to the relative SPEED of the new medium.
I've written this before in various ways in the blogs and my essay. Let me know if you've grasped it, and what the blockage was, I really need to get an understanding of why so many fail to! Your last sentence contains the scattering basics but still missed the DFM's 'relative media motion' element.
Best wishes
Peter
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 16, 2011 @ 15:10 GMT
Peter,
Sorry, bad example. It did not accomplish what I was looking for. Way too much going on there. Please consider this case and let me know what you see going on? As light passes closely by a massive body, say the moon with no atmosphere, its path will bend. This is analogous to Einstin's prediction for starlight bending as it passes the sun. I just don't want to be including any possible mediums other than the vacuum of space and gravity. He had to double his original predicted angle because of adding in the effect of time dilation. For an observer, on the surface of the completely atmosphere free massive body, watching the light pass by, what is the speed of light that that observer will measure? I don't remember if you have written about time dilation. Does time dilation occur and how does that enter into the observer's measured result?
The point I want to cover has only to do with the predictions of the Lorentz transforms without involving boundaries between different mediums, refraction, etc. So, if another observer is moving from the opposite direction toward the light, what speed of light will that observer measure? If you have written about this already, I apologize for putting you through it again. I want to understand clearly your position on length contraction and time dilation due to the variation of gravity only? If the mass was increased ten fold, would this change what either observer measures? If it does or does not then, why? I appreciate your patience.
James
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 16, 2011 @ 15:25 GMT
Peter,
P.S., Please include an observer moving in the same direction as the light is traveling. Thank you.
James
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Peter Jackson replied on Apr. 17, 2011 @ 19:52 GMT
James
Fine. But you'll have to drop an assumption, apparently the most difficult achievement in physics!
Eckard is correct; the LT is superfluous (see my post on New clothes for the standard King)as the reason for it's creation does not in fact exist. We see light at 'c' due to a well known (but not well enough understood outside optics) quantum mechanism.
The moon, like a...
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James
Fine. But you'll have to drop an assumption, apparently the most difficult achievement in physics!
Eckard is correct; the LT is superfluous (see my post on New clothes for the standard King)as the reason for it's creation does not in fact exist. We see light at 'c' due to a well known (but not well enough understood outside optics) quantum mechanism.
The moon, like a comet or spacecraft, indeed has no 'atmosphere'. But they do have magnetic fields and ion plasmaspheres. Flux depends significantly on relative motion through the vacuum (exactly like the smaller proton bunches in accelerators). 'Weak field equivalence' is far stronger in plasma (see for instance; http://arxiv.org/ftp/gr-qc/papers/0003/0003011.pdf)
This means there IS NO condition where 'diffraction' is not the direct cause of propagation speed changes , and thus curved light paths. But where our understanding has proved inadequate is that this is not ALL due to Fresnels 'n'. It is also due to the relative motion of the plasma ions (i.e parent body) through space, or the interplanetary or interstellar medium (read 'local CMBR rest frame').
MASS Yes, this does vary subject to mass, as the magnetic field is stronger so flux greater (I give the densities and other links in the essay). This IS the effect of gravity, as the ion clouds (plasma) carry the additional (inertial) mass, and gravitational potential to, for instance, give us the extra Halo mass and flat acceleration curves of galaxies.
The heliosheath is also a plasma ion cloud many kiloparsecs thick (but not an atmosphere), which ensures light entering the solar system does 'c' wrt the sun. (see the NASA 'LL Orionis' photo).
This means length contraction and time dilation are simply equivalent to Doppler shift. A string of Q-bits, photons, waves or a signal entering the heliosphere (inertial frame) will be contracted or dilated subject to relative direction and speed.
The domain of the LT 'curve to infinity' does apply to the energy curve as 'c' is approached, (and is closely equivalent to CERN's electricity bill as they try to get bunches up to 'c'!).
i.e. light will carry on at 'c' in a straight line through space until it comes across any basic 'ion' quanta, which modulate it. Plasma is supposed to make up over 95% of all matter! We also recently measured a significant refraction of light through the coma and tail of a comet.
With consideration you should see how this would simplify all physics, unify it and make it fit all our experiments and observations. It also uses the SR postulates and PoE. All is of course entirely falsifiable, though much currently under rather ugly 'patches'.
But of course ions condense from 'something' at below 'mass' making up the vacuum field, with permittivity, flux, etc etc. Can it really just be (dark) energy potential with only your two qualities? How does that sit with your theory?
Peter
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 17, 2011 @ 20:26 GMT
Peter,
Very clearly written. I don't know much yet about the empirical evidence for the effects that you describe. It would be interesting to have a physicist comment on the content of your above message. I was uncertain about this part: "This means length contraction and time dilation are simply equivalent to Doppler shift." It reads to me as if you are saying that these effects are purly visual for objects. With light, I see doppler effects. With objects as the subject, what does doppler effect have to do with it. In other words, does a horizontal metal bar moving horizontally along the surface of the earth physically contract according to the predictions of Lorentz Transforms? Does it matter whether the bar is on the front side of the earth or on a side of the earth with respect to its direction of travel?
Another question for your theory: A planet orbits a star. Assume the planet is perfectly round. If clock's, in several locations around the planet, are lifted up at a constant rate away from the planet, will their rates vary as they are lifted and will any variation be consistent among them.
James
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Peter Jackson replied on Apr. 18, 2011 @ 10:41 GMT
James
No. Doppler shifts are real physical effects. But before we ask questions we must define which observer frame we're in. There is only one valid one for measurement. This when the observer is at rest in the same frame (field) the light is moving within. This field is a physical entity, which is why John can't hold the dynamics in his mind (wrong preconception). Light can't move at...
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James
No. Doppler shifts are real physical effects. But before we ask questions we must define which observer frame we're in. There is only one valid one for measurement. This when the observer is at rest in the same frame (field) the light is moving within. This field is a physical entity, which is why John can't hold the dynamics in his mind (wrong preconception). Light can't move at 'c' wrt nothing anyway!
All other potential frames are invalid so 'apparent' v plus c is fine, because the light signals (telling you of the sequential scattering at c locally) arrive at 'c', so nothing breaches 'c' anywhere.
The amount of contraction depends on compressibility. Light waves, or a string of Q-bits, are very compressible. An iron bar is not. A car is half way between. Things transform when moving between frames. The amount the car compresses when it changes inertial frame to that of the brick wall depends on the relative motion of the two frames. The amount the queue of people stretches when it reaches the moving pavement is the same. There may be friction, noise and energy emission if either is too rigid change!
This may also be equivalent to the friction, noise and energy emission here when rigid out of date physics can't change!
On earth the bar stays within the earth's plasmasphere so is always moving in the same background frame, unless it's windy or on a train! But whether the train is moving on earth or Mars doesn't make any difference. (all as observed for once!)
CLOCKS
Time is not a physical entity but is equally subject to (as Georgina's) observer frame. There is an overall Newtonian absolute time, based on the reference frame of what I suppose we should call the Active Universal Nuclii (AUN,) but that's not what we use. As apparent phenomena change between frames so do the apparent divisions we've applied to existence. Clocks are man's invention. If the oscillation rate of a caesium atom changes on frame transformation it does not do any magic tricks with any 'rate of passage of time! it just changes a local mechanical action.
So, lifting clocks? It depends entirely on the mechanism of the clock, and if the observer is moving with the clocks or not. If he isn't they 'change.' All all other clocks will change differently to each observer. There is no separate 'optical effect', there is only apparent reality to each observer, only ONE of which he can validly measure without renormalising (with maths).
Last conceptual point, there are not billions of Lorentz and Doppler formulas floating around in space changing things, there are only real physical mechanisms. These may be described by geometry or formulae, but the formulae do NOT substitute for reality. The Doppler mechanism is simple, the Lorentz formulae inapplicable except in a very limited domain (power curve). Even Richard Feynman admitted "I rather suspect that the simple ideas of geometry, extended down into infinitely small space, are wrong". Which equally applies to vector space. Interestingly for the DFM (and thank you Yuri) he also said; "I believe that the theory that space is continuous is wrong, because we get these infinities and other difficulties,"
Peter
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Anonymous wrote on Apr. 8, 2011 @ 12:14 GMT
A mp3 digital audio player have the same power of an old computer.
It is possible to obtain a parallel calculus with new low cost computers – 40 dollars- with an all-in-one device (single chip with integrated video board, sound board and solid state drive), so that it work like a internet server, with a single digital port (like usb3.0) and some standard peripherals (in the web it is possible to use each old computer, because the digital standardization permit the communication of each peripherals: the communication standard work ever without hardware ageing).
It is possible the peripherals (digital keyboard, digital display,etc) use with each operative system, and it is possible to read some extern solid state disc after centuries.
If someone want work with a parallel calculus, it is not necessary buy motherboards, or computer network hardwares (digital packet transmission over usb).
It is only necessary a industrial process for low cost peripherals, and standardization.
Saluti
Domenico
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Peter Jackson wrote on Apr. 28, 2011 @ 11:35 GMT
James, Cristi, et al.
I propose; 'Light is only visible when scattered by matter'. - (DFM). I've derived that to try to engender a new way of thinking.
We cannot 'see' a light wave or photon moving through a vacumm. If the em energy interacts with a particle, - it becomes 'visible'. This always includes the particles of our lenses. 'n' as we know, always applies to particles (media). We can only measure light speed in 2 ways. 1) dt. 2) via instruments with particles. We thought this was paradoxical if instruments move. Not if we understand the mechanism. If we understand the implications of this, it makes the DFM the biggest thing to hit science since the big bang!
Edwin; I believe this is largely compatible with the C-field. In your view, what is the mechanism for Polarisation mode dispersal (PMD), Birefringence, and up and downshifted scattering itself, from particles at rest, if they don't include inherent oscillatory motion? Is there any reason why the C- field, while stressing the central importance of the 'external wave' has to also rely on gluons being perhaps lumps of something stuck fast and 'frozen' stiff, instead of also allowing a certain duality?
For your interest; http://www.wbabin.net/files/4364_anderton109.pdf Roger Anderton is a committed Einstein critic and Newton fan, hasn't got a solution, and I believe is bogged down off track, but still has much pertinent to say, and this gives some interesting angles on Einsteins UFT.
Does anybody think they can see or detect light without it being scattered by particles of matter?
In that case, can anybody see where it was we all went off track and got bogged down ourselves?
Peter
(Re-posted here as I lost it somewhere in space and time, it explains the above, - and this string loads in no time!).
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James Putnam replied on Apr. 28, 2011 @ 18:02 GMT
Peter,
I have been busy. I know that I have missed messages. If anything that I say exposes ignorance on my part, please point it out. My own emphasis is on true causes and its effects. The overall unified theory is something that I look forward to recognizing after the fundamentals have been made correct. I have not yet fitted your ideas into a full theory.
With regard to n, the index of refraction, it is a number on a scale measuring the effect of a cause. It must be explained why there is refraction without refering to n. In other words, what is the cause of a changing speed of light. I know that the speed of light varies. For one thing, we measure changes in the speed of light. But, what is the 'cause' of a changing speed of light? The word 'mass' is not an answer unless it is explained what is mass and why it causes the speed of light to vary?
With regard to the incorrectness of the theory of relativity, there is one obvious proof. It is that the idea of time, real time not just the mechanical action of clocks, dilation is illogical. Clock's are no different from other mechanical effects. The differences in mechanical effects have nothing to do with a real property of time.
So, from you, what is the cause of the variation of the speed of light? With regard to visible and invisible light, I will hold my opinion while I wait for your response.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on Apr. 29, 2011 @ 16:27 GMT
James
The paper explaining 'n' is still in review. PMD (see above) is shown to be about wave harmonics, slowing some superposed frequencies more than others (when 'scattered'). Ions seem to diffract more consistently, and even a quite diffuse interstellar halo or 'shock' medium will curve light paths. It's simple wave particle interaction, very well known in optical fibre...
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James
The paper explaining 'n' is still in review. PMD (see above) is shown to be about wave harmonics, slowing some superposed frequencies more than others (when 'scattered'). Ions seem to diffract more consistently, and even a quite diffuse interstellar halo or 'shock' medium will curve light paths. It's simple wave particle interaction, very well known in optical fibre science.
There is a massive chasm between taught and 'up to date' physics. The paper was initially rejected, essentially on the basis of "not representing new science". In a way that was true, as it only used known and confirmed results, including recent ones, but showed how those jigsaw puzzle pieces fitted together properly for the first time. The revised one is more cutting edge.
I also know a senior physics teacher of teachers who bemoaned the lack of any 'intuitive' way of understanding and teaching refraction. I'd sent him a copy, plus the references, all from PR journals. It's precisely what he needed, but it's so far beyond what his syllabus and text books say he doesn't dare use it. In fact I don't think he even believes it, as it's not what he learned at uni 30 years ago. (despite much going back to Newton/Huygens).
So all our children are still going to be taught out of date nonsense, and still insist you and I are talking rubbish when they get their degrees, and that we should go back to uni. What chance does the human race now have of making progress?
SO; To answer your question re 'n'; Different polarisation, oscillation and damping affect delay time of absorption and re-emission (scattering). Lambda and f are of course analogous to distance and time. This does however leave the question; ..distance and time between fluctuations of what? Let's face it, a 'dark energy' condensate/ether medium is now logically unavoidable.
Time; Dig deeper still. If any 'clock' simply provides us with equal measures of duration, and light passes that signal from any clock to our lenses, the signal can be altered in between simply by altering the speed of light. This is NOT "just' an optical effect' at all! It is the compression ('contraction', or dilation/ expansion) of the signal. If our train heads towards the giant clock, then viewed from our train (inertial frame) the (redder) clock will appear to run fast, because the light in the train is doing 'c' (or c/n) wrt the train NOT the clock.
This (DFM) makes most physics quite simple and intuitive, and makes it meet observation at last. Perhaps that's why most physicists resist it and many may need to be retired to advance science.
I note none here have found anything inconsistent in my recent posts, or indeed in my essay. Do you think the problem is not lack of understanding, but the same problem the universities have with teaching refraction?
I'm a little tiring of teaching my class 2 plus 2 makes 4, when they've known for so long the answer is $-5% perhaps I should accept that.
Peter
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James Putnam wrote on May. 3, 2011 @ 00:28 GMT
Dear Peter,
"The paper explaining 'n' is still in review. PMD (see above) is shown to be about wave harmonics, slowing some superposed frequencies more than others (when 'scattered'). Ions seem to diffract more consistently, and even a quite diffuse interstellar halo or 'shock' medium will curve light paths. It's simple wave particle interaction, very well known in optical fibre...
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Dear Peter,
"The paper explaining 'n' is still in review. PMD (see above) is shown to be about wave harmonics, slowing some superposed frequencies more than others (when 'scattered'). Ions seem to diffract more consistently, and even a quite diffuse interstellar halo or 'shock' medium will curve light paths. It's simple wave particle interaction, very well known in optical fibre science."
It is the "...wave particle interaction..." that interest me. Why do particles cause waves to alter their behavior? Our approaches are different. I need to know what it is, from a fundamental point of view, that leads to effects
Yours appears to me to view the overall circumstance and solve for a senario that appears to account for available empirical evidence. You follow overall empirical evidence much more closely and current than do I.
My approach has to do with identifiying the single original cause for all effects. If I make that identification correctly, then that fundamental cause will have clear aspects that fit for each branch of overall empirical evidence. My opinion is that the single fundamental cause is that the speed of light varies. This conclusion applies directly to matter. I define each particle of matter by its effect upon the speed of light only. Therefore, it is the variation of the speed of light that must account for effects upon light. The property of mass is representative of the inverse of this variation of light. Everything that can be mentioned about how light is effected by matter, must be accounted for as the result of the variation of the speed of light.
"SO; To answer your question re 'n'; Different polarisation, oscillation and damping affect delay time of absorption and re-emission (scattering). Lambda and f are of course analogous to distance and time. This does however leave the question; ..distance and time between fluctuations of what? Let's face it, a 'dark energy' condensate/ether medium is now logically unavoidable."
As pointed out above, the effects that matter causes upon light does not explain why matter affects light. My approach has to do with why matter affects light. I do not look for 'darkness features' to explain insufficiencies in my approach. Perhaps there is more material out there. I will not use that possibility to patch my theoretical work until new material is empirically confirmed. By confirmed, I mean not strongly implied, but, untheoretically independently revealed.
"Time; Dig deeper still. If any 'clock' simply provides us with equal measures of duration, and light passes that signal from any clock to our lenses, the signal can be altered in between simply by altering the speed of light. This is NOT "just' an optical effect' at all! It is the compression ('contraction', or dilation/ expansion) of the signal. If our train heads towards the giant clock, then viewed from our train (inertial frame) the (redder) clock will appear to run fast, because the light in the train is doing 'c' (or c/n) wrt the train NOT the clock."
Your "Dig deeper still." remark is a little too patronizing. I have dug deeper for quite some time now. If I am incorrect about my conclusions, it has more to do with lack of support and input by experts than it does with my personal commitment. I have said many things here that should have earned the attention of theoretical physicists. The latest link I provided for my paper on 'The Nature of Thermodynamic Entropy' has received no response by others. We are each ignored. My opinion is that it is extremely important in clarifying the case for redefining theoretical physics right from its beginnings.
With regard to the clock. My question suggesting that you appeared to be saying that the slowing of clocks is an optical effect takes into consideration that which you have explained here. I am not a physicist. However, my personal opinion is that either the clock actually slows, making it a physical effect, or its photons enter other mediums that only make it appear that the clock slows. For me, if the clock only appears to slow, that is an optical effect.
Here is some information about what my theoretical work tells me: Protons and electrons effect light in different ways. The result is that if there is a gas of protons then the internal speed of light will be lowered below C. If there is a gas of electrons the internal speed of light will be raised above C. The greatest difference has to do with electrons. An electron gas is capable of raising the local speed of light hundreds of times higher than C.
There is much more to say; however, since what I say is poorly received, it is enough for now. This latest essay contest, and some other unrelated demands on my time have slowed my work applying what I have learned to quantum effects. I recognize that you are combining quantum effects with macroscopic effects to propose the overall senario. For me, I must know what is happening at the fundamental level.
I do not believe in theoretical weirdnesses as indications of reality. I see those weirdnesses as indications of many mistakes during the development of theoretical physics. My work is to demonstrate that this is the case. If it helps you, that is fine with me. Wherever it leads I will follow. For everyone, truth should be the goal.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on May. 5, 2011 @ 17:35 GMT
James
'Attenuation', or Harmonics. Atomic physics well knows that particles affect waves and vice versa, and precisely how those effects can be changed. You only need to look at Birefringence to see the effects of relative polarity. Vladimir Tamari has a sexy looking flow analogy but it can't work at these quantum phenomena, and it seems optical fibre science would be rather...
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James
'Attenuation', or Harmonics. Atomic physics well knows that particles affect waves and vice versa, and precisely how those effects can be changed. You only need to look at Birefringence to see the effects of relative polarity. Vladimir Tamari has a sexy looking flow analogy but it can't work at these quantum phenomena, and it seems optical fibre science would be rather different!
The 'reason why' they do it is simple, just think about how we get things oscillating in the first place! It's all the same thing. Just consider how we But all these things need a condensate medium, not 'matter' which we can say has the potential of 'dark energy.' If you say you don't agree matter affects light too loudly you won't be able to see yourself in the mirror, laser wouldn't work, and all your fibre optics connections will go down ..so I'd keep it quiet!! It's exactly the same vice versa, as you know.
You're right about our approaches, and that they're complimentary.
I didn't mean to be patronising about time, but it seemed you needed to do the 'Bragg' thing and look at it another way. Your definition of 'optical effect' potentially makes the whole universe an optical effect, so mine allows concrete reality.
If an ion (formed by pair production from the condensate) is oscillating in space it is unbound, can oscillate freer and interact more easily. if the medium is more dense and the ions are bound into a molecular gas nothing can oscillate quite so fast. But remember EVERYTHING IS 'RELATIVE' So if a clock physically moves from one medium to another (like a grandfather clock dropped in water, the Polarisation mode Dispersion will be greater. i.e. it will slow down. no mystery. When you say 'in more gravity' it may mean a denser particle field, which could do it. When you say 'speeding up' you're in trouble withou a background medium it is speeding up with reference to, and thus also in trouble without specifying an observer frame. Until you grasp all that lot clearly the words and terms we use will remain meaningless, or paradoxical and confusing at best.
I can't agree with your proton/electron paragraph, partly for the same reasons, and because I agree with constancy of 'c' except for certain special circumstances (and actual 'optical effects').
I agree about weirdness, which is only due to our limited mental ability and over reliance on maths. I hope all that helps. Did you read my "Explaining physics to a barmaid" Gedanken? (after Einstein) that seems to help re-arrange the viewpoint to open the maximum new vistas. But they all need repetitive rehearsing. did you know older oscillators (i.e. quartz instrument components) are more reliably consistent than newer ones? Unfortunately it seems the particle 'information' oscillations in most physicists brain cells are too strongly pre-conditioned and set in their ways and frequencies to be affected by seeing the light. I unfortunately don't expect any more than we get. But I also will not tire!
I do hope some of that made some sense.
Best wishes.
Peter
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James Putnam replied on May. 5, 2011 @ 22:00 GMT
Peter,
I do not recognize myself as you portray me. Can we concentrate on a single point: You say in your message that a clock will change is rate if it moves into a new medium. How about addressing the special relativity type effect. If the clock stays in the same constant unchanging medium, does its change of velocity in that medium cause its rate of operation to also change accordingly?
James
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Peter Jackson replied on May. 6, 2011 @ 18:59 GMT
James,
No. I doesn't change. I wrote a full and comprehensive answer and it disappeared off into cyberspace. Restaurant booked for 8 so must go!
Essentially the question's presupposition is wrong. All the answers are in the previous posts, but you must use a different viewpoint to see them. I'm not trying to portray you in any way, but you must recognise there IS another way of looking at it.
Keys;
Observer frame is essential, our concept of 'lab frame' is wrong.
Matter is not IN space but is 'spatially extended'. Thus the 2nd postulate.
Look back and reconsider as you read to see if you can understand why. It's really simple when you find it, but it's well hidden - under our noses!
Best of luck
Peter
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James Putnam replied on May. 6, 2011 @ 19:27 GMT
Peter,
I am trying to identify specific differences in our approaches. If an unstable particle of matter has a high horizontal velocity near the surface of the earth, in an unchanging medium or environment, then I think, based upon your last message, your position is that its decay time will not be affected. If this is incorrect, please correct it.
With regard to "Essentially the question's presupposition is wrong." I described a straighforward physical circumstance. The answer is either yes or no. I have read your messages. I thought that your previous explanations were sometimes unclear. Your train example seemed to me to be saying that the clocks do not change their rates. And, that an observer who sees that the arriving wavelengths are alterred after leaving the clocks due to relative velocities and passing through changing mediums would see the clock rates differently from what they really are. How is this not an optical effect? From my point of view, a physical effect pertaining specifically to the example would be the conclusion that the clock rates do physically change wether they are observed or not.
"Matter is not IN space but is 'spatially extended'. Thus the 2nd postulate."
I have known this. I thought it was well known. I still choose to use the word space in order to account for differences in position.
I understand that you know a lot. I understand that you have thought things through very deeply. I still find some lack of clarity in your answers. Perhaps, you feel that some things I ask about are so simple as to be implied. My approach is to look for specifics in as fundamental a way as is possible. I do not find physics theory to be specific about some of its fundamentals.
Actually, you do need to spend your time communicating your ideas to real physicists.
James
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James Putnam wrote on May. 6, 2011 @ 21:03 GMT
Tom,
I just viewed this at:
http://lcni.uoregon.edu/~mark/Stat_mech/thermodynamic_ent
ropy_and_information.html
Excerpt: "The bottom line is that thermodynamic entropy is best understood not as a property or macroscopic state of matter (like mass, temperature, or pressure), but as a lack of knowledge of the detailed configuration of matter. In particular, thermodynamic entropy is a measure of our lack of information about the microstate of a closed system of matter near equilibrium. To make this concrete, I'll compare two similar simple systems, one of particles and one of bits. Although the concept of entropy in classical thermodynamics was elucidated long before information theory was developed, thermodynamic entropy can be viewed as a straight-forward application of information theory to a physical problem."
Can you believe this? Something that was clearly and precisely defined in terms of temperature, energy transiting into or out of a system in thermal equilibrium, and something that required the passage of time, is dismissed as really being a counting problem unrelated to the definition of thermodynamic entropy. Plainly this is one more example of avoiding answering fundamental questions before racing off into an unrelated area. Thermodynamic entropy was defined long before space-cells were defined for reasons of pretending to calculate thermodynamic entropy, or long before microstates were discovered. scientifically irresponsible wouldn't you say? :@)
James
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T H Ray replied on May. 7, 2011 @ 17:53 GMT
"Can you believe this?"
Every word.
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James Putnam replied on May. 7, 2011 @ 22:44 GMT
Tom,
Looking at this again today, it is correct to say:
"The bottom line is that thermodynamic entropy is best understood not as a property or macroscopic state of matter (like mass, temperature, or pressure), but as a lack of knowledge of the detailed configuration of matter."
The reason it is correct to say this is because thermodynamic entropy is not understood. Therefore, it cannot be 'best' understood. However, I have corrected that situation and will just have to wait for others to eventually agree. In the meantime, this sidestepping is one more example of theory losing its empirical base and moving beyond scientific knowledge.
By the way: "Although the concept of entropy in classical thermodynamics was elucidated long before information theory was developed, thermodynamic entropy can be viewed as a straight-forward application of information theory to a physical problem." cannot be true because the one thing that cannot yet be counted, because it is unknown, is the time required for theormodynamic entropy to occur.
James :o)
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T H Ray replied on May. 8, 2011 @ 11:25 GMT
James,
It's all true. The mathematical model of energy entropy (Boltzmann) is identical to that of information entropy (Shannon).
Time plays a role only in the measure of a continuous physical process, not in a discrete measure. While it is a fact that entropy can only increase, because statistical mechanics describes the behavior of discrete ensembles made of discrete elements, the increase is a not a linear process, which as you suggest applies to a continuous counting problem.
Even though entropy increases IN time, therefore, it does not necessarily increase WITH time. That is, a closed system of interacting particles will tend overall toward entropy (energy equilibrium state) while specific domains of nonequilibrium thermodynamics are tending toward order, with energy throughput fueling that engine.
At the extreme end of the universe -- black hole thermodynamics -- Jacob Bekenstein and Avraham Mayo recovered the linear counting order you're talking about, showing black holes to be a 1-dimension information channel, a sink. (cited in my 2008 FQXi essay.) That is one example of " ... straight-forward application of information theory to a physical problem" on the classical scale. Results on the quantum scale include Gerard 't Hooft's program of Planck scale determinism with information loss.
Tom
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James Putnam wrote on May. 8, 2011 @ 13:15 GMT
Tom,
"It's all true. The mathematical model of energy entropy (Boltzmann) is identical to that of information entropy (Shannon)."
Boltzmann's entropy is not thermodynamic entropy. It is a statistical calculation that borrows Boltzmann's constant for no real purpose other than perhaps keeping units the same for a calculation that is not at all the same thing.
"Time plays a role only in the measure of a continuous physical process, not in a discrete measure."
Thermodynamic entropy is a continuous physical process. That is why the heat must enter and leave under very tightly controlled circumstances.
"Even though entropy increases IN time, therefore, it does not necessarily increase WITH time."
Thermodynamic entropy always involves the passage of time. The artificial unrelated concepts of entropy are not entropy.
"That is, a closed system of interacting particles will tend overall toward entropy (energy equilibrium state) while specific domains of nonequilibrium thermodynamics are tending toward order, with energy throughput fueling that engine."
Yes a closed system (My words: not in equilibrium) of interacting particles will tend overall toward the most probably state. That state is not related to the calculation of thermodynamic entropy. That state is not thermodynamic entropy. Thermodynamic entropy is a measure of a precisely controlled process. There is no variation allowed in conditions of equilibrium. There is no settling down. There is no movement from a lower probability state to a higher probability state. There is only a continuously stable state.
"At the extreme end of the universe -- black hole thermodynamics -- Jacob Bekenstein and Avraham Mayo recovered the linear counting order you're talking about, showing black holes to be a 1-dimension information channel, a sink. (cited in my 2008 FQXi essay.) That is one example of " ... straight-forward application of information theory to a physical problem" on the classical scale. Results on the quantum scale include Gerard 't Hooft's program of Planck scale determinism with information loss."
This all sounds very impressive, but it has nothing to do with thermodynamic entropy. The only correct form for expressing thermodynami entropy is Clausius' definition. The other forms, beginning with Boltzmann's entropy are not at all the same thing. They are simply logs of numbers of whatever the theorist wishes to be counting.
James
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T H Ray replied on May. 8, 2011 @ 17:11 GMT
James Putnam replied on May. 8, 2011 @ 17:48 GMT
Tom,
Just so others may understand: What I said about thermodynamic entropy as Clausius' S = dQ/T and the other statistical forms, which are completely unrelated to his definition, is correct. Physicists are still stumbling over explanations for what thermodynamic entropy is because they do not know what it is. They understand the other forms. However, the other forms are not the same thing at all.
James
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James Putnam replied on May. 8, 2011 @ 23:07 GMT
Just in case someone, or more someones, might wonder, with sincere interest, where it is that I come up with my conclusions, presently the one about the nature of thermodynamic entropy, the answer is: Rid ourselves of artificially indefinable properties. The first property to be transformed from indefinable to definable is mass. The second is electric charge. The third is temperature. All three of these needed to be converted in order to explain the thermodynamic entropy.
Regardless of Tom's "Whatever." remark, the fact is that physicists do not know what thermodynamic entropy is. That is why answers, such as Tom's, begin with Boltzmann's entropy instead of thermodynamic entropy. They are not even close in their meanings. I push this point because I have found that it is important for physicists to know what thermodynamic entropy is. I have presented the resulting work here and elsewhere.
The point is that all theoretical concepts must find their roots in the same empirical evidence from which they were inferred. This appears to be a very difficult concept to communicate. It is not because the concept is difficult; it is because it must be implemented right from the start of theory. The changes necessary are monumental.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on May. 8, 2011 @ 19:11 GMT
James
"I am trying to identify specific differences in our approaches."
Commendable. If it helps, it was obvious because if you were looking from the same viewpoint you would have seen the question as illogical, however straightforward it looked to you. You asked; "If the clock stays in the same constant unchanging medium, does its change of velocity in that medium...
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James
"I am trying to identify specific differences in our approaches."
Commendable. If it helps, it was obvious because if you were looking from the same viewpoint you would have seen the question as illogical, however straightforward it looked to you. You asked; "If the clock stays in the same constant unchanging medium, does its change of velocity in that medium cause..."
Now takes 3 steps backwards, two sideways look at this and consider,; As the clock is 'spatially extended' the MASS of the clock itself does not physically assume a different 'velocity though' any medium, it is the boundaries of the spatial extension that experience the change, and thus cause and effect. This is what propagates the 'particle bow shocks' and 'photo-electron clouds. Look again at the LL Orionis photo in my essay. If we were on a planet within the heliosphere (inside the bow shock) are we affected if the gas goes past faster or slower?, or in a different direction? of course not! This IS the 2nd postulate.
Yet ALL observers in ALL inertial frames SEE something different. The only valid measurement frame is the frame (including 'ether') the thing being measured is moving in. What else does light do 'c' with respect to (wrt) in space, or particles wrt the LHC vacuum?!,
So Yes, I believe its decay time will not be affected in the 1st order (there are second order effects, i.e. pair production can begat molecular gas, where particles become bound).
Optical effect? The real need for different understanding here is that SEEING is itself an 'optical effect'. i.e. EVERYTHING we observe IS an optical effect, so we should not 'dismiss' things as optical effects (lightly or 'heavily'). The point is that we can never 'see' (Georgina's) concrete reality, so always have to guess or calculate what it is. You really need to read up on the difference between our western 'self centric' thinking and Holistic thinking. In the latter no one observer is important at all. Once we start to view everything holistically it all start to fall into place, paradoxes vanish and the mists clear.
I hope that is more clearly explained?
"Actually, you do need to spend your time communicating your ideas to real physicists." You betcha. The real task here is to find a way to do so. I'm on approach methodology 20 something so far! The DFM even predicted the Lense- Thirring (frame dragging) Effect just found, which I've pointed, but does anyone take any notice? It's ignored or written off, as GR predicted it anyway!
Despite wave particle interaction old and well established oscillators are very reliable and are less affected by light, indeed they will always insist on affecting light rather than vice versa. This is what happens in brain cells. The can SEE the new light thrown on nature, but the old stuff is so well established the new stuff doesn't stick, or just gets 'bounced off'. If you have any ideas how to overcome that do let me know. I'm still working on getting something published as a first step.
Peter
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James Putnam replied on May. 8, 2011 @ 20:54 GMT
Peter,
Well, our approaches are very different right from the beginning to the results. However, we both agree that the speed of light varies. I don't think that my work can be adjusted since it is based upon a single original cause and continuous fundamental unity with no other causes ever needed. Interestingly enough, it may be that some of my math might be transferrable. I do produce equations analogous to those of relativity theory. They cover relativity type effects so far as I know now. Yet they have that changing speed of light embedded in them. They might fit other variable speed of light theories that are not like mine.
James
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Peter Jackson wrote on May. 13, 2011 @ 15:48 GMT
James
Can they handle motion? As vector space can't we're now working on a new maths formalism that overcomes the issue and re-normalisation to reality.
The Chromatic Dispersion paper finally got rejected, as expected. Normal stuff:, There ARE no problems in physics to solve, ..It didn't contain new science as most of it is known at the cutting edge, ..The stuff in it varied from the old science we're taught,..and is 'speculative', ..I didn't write it in troglodyte.
Most of which I new except the first one, and apart from the odd point they seem to have missed. But hey, that's peers for you. A Feynman said, when the answer is found it'll look wrong at first, then, when we get used to it, it'll become obvious.
Not much chance of many getting used to either of ours yet it seems!
Peter
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